Gharib
I want Khilafah back
Have you read any of Bart Ehrman's works?
good link thanks for sharing that Sunstone
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Have you read any of Bart Ehrman's works?
What proof did Muhammad have that the Bible and Torah were changed?
If I'm not mistaken, the Koran commands Muslims to read the Gospels, Psalms, and Torah. Why don't Muslims follow those commands more often?
here you can ask any question you want. except rude questions,because it will be reported.....
English??? first Of All The Bible Wasn't In English at the first! and it isn't me who's joking.and i didn't write the bible! and not god or jesus who wrote the nowadays Bible! Humans Did That, It's Clear! But your just being ignorant because you have that cultural Thing! ((Why Would we christians convert to islam and it is from arabia and it's massenger is arabian! You Say That Right!!! but islam is for the world as you see that islam is spreading in Europe and that's the truth walking and you see it with your own eyes!
Good lord. well its reassuring to know that Muslims are as literal about the Bible as they are about the Qur'an.
I can't imagine that Jews and Christians who have read such passages for centuries ever took them to mean just that. 'the four corners of the earth' is figure of speech.
there is no true religious book written by human :no:
what Ymir has said is correct, brother. the four corners usually (as far as i know) means the North, East, South and West. it doesn't say that the earth is square, however another passage does say that the sun rotates around the earth.
when scientists started to gather evidence that the earth actually rotates around the sun, christians became very angry with them and their claims, because their God knew everything, but it turns out he didn't know that the earth rotates around the sun. to be honest THEIR GOD who sent them a prophet named Isa alayhi salam (Jesus) was very well aware that the earth rotates around the sun, however human additions and alterations to the bible is what caused the contradictions.
Why is the Bible spoken of with such reverence and respect in the Koran if it is unreliable?
How does the Holly Quran defines the term of holly war? Is the term just a new one invented by warmongers or is it stated in the holly book as well? I was wondering what was it's true meaning if it's stated there after all. Is it similar to what the crusaders did?
P.S. Thanks for the awesome topic you opened.
the qur'an does not speak about the bible that was available at the time of prophet Muhammed peace be upon him, nor about the current bible, if you read the verses of the Qur'an properly you will see that it speaks of the bible and the torah and the psalms revealed to the prophets, namely Jesus, Moses and David.
we believe that those three prophet peace be upon them, were true prophets of the same God of Muahmmed. we also believe that they received revelation in the form of a book from God just like Muhammed. as muslims we must respect all the revelations from God and all his prophets. one cannot be a muslim unless they accept that Moses received the Torah from God, the same with David and Jesus receiving their books. however, we do not believe that the current books which supposedly represent the 3 previous scriptures are unaltered and that everything which is in them is true.
My ideas of proof are irrelevant, Eselam. The fact is that he simply made the claim and stuck to his guns. In English, we have an expression that is similar to, "Throw enough peanut butter at the wall, and eventually, some of it will stick." I am confident saying that Muhammad understood this principle well. You know as well as I do that he never offered a single piece of evidence to backup his claim.i am already regretting my post to you, but what exactly counts as proof according to you?
My ideas of proof are irrelevant, Eselam. The fact is that he simply made the claim and stuck to his guns. In English, we have an expression that is similar to, "Throw enough peanut butter at the wall, and eventually, some of it will stick." I am confident saying that Muhammad understood this principle well. You know as well as I do that he never offered a single piece of evidence to backup his claim.
Originally, I got the idea from reading the Qur'an. There are several instances where "changing the word of God" is mentioned. It is a bit odd for a god to harp on how his changeless his real message is, that the Qur'an itself is protected from change etc, if it is not a direct indictment against the Bible and Talmud.In the first place did you decide by yourself that he claimed that the Torah/Gospel had been literally changed or you read it somewhere?
Possibly, no doubt it was all just a misunderstanding.The situation in 7th C Arabia was that Prophet Muhammad(pbuh) found corruption in general attitude of the Arabic Jews and Christians, in his neighborhood, and felt that they were not following the correct way. Claims that he said that literal alterations had taken place are probably misinterpretations.
The key word here is SOME. Obviously, there is some contention with Muslim ranks on this minor point. As a non-Muslim, I don't feel that I am making such a big error because of this.Some Muslim scholars who propose the thesis that the text of the Bible has not been literally altered (obviously, in their opinion they are not in contradiction to the Quran or the Hadith).
This illustrates one thing I do like about Islam. If you don't get agreement from one Imam, shop around. You will eventually find some folks that support your thinking.In fact you will find two lists here: The first (which includes Imam Ghazali, Razi) posit that only the meaning of the Bible has been misinterpreted, while the second (which includes Ibn Taymiyaa) posit that the literal words have been changed.
Oh, I understand pretty well, A-ManESL. The point is that there IS a debate about it. So, I'm not totally off my rocker assuming that he may well have meant textual changes.It should be obvious to you by now that had there been a clear claim by the Prophet (as for some reason you think there was) that the texts had been literally changed there would not be this debate.
My ideas of proof are irrelevant, Eselam. The fact is that he simply made the claim and stuck to his guns. In English, we have an expression that is similar to, "Throw enough peanut butter at the wall, and eventually, some of it will stick." I am confident saying that Muhammad understood this principle well. You know as well as I do that he never offered a single piece of evidence to backup his claim.
We could pretend that you have a meaningful answer to counter my own.just as i expected, why ask a question if you don't want to hear the answer or if you have already answered yourself?
There are no original copies of any of the books of the Old or New Testaments. The earliest NT writings are fragments, not complete books. Also, the Gospels were based on oral tradition of the language spoken in Judea at the time -- Aramaic -- and later translated and written in Greek:Do you realize that the only way the Bible could've been altered without us knowing it is for the original writers to write something other than what God inspired them to write? You see once the original copies were put into circulation, people would've starting making copies of the original. If someone were to alter one of the copies, some people would continue copying these altered copies but faithful copies of the original would still exist in other places and would continue to be copied. We have ancient copies of the NT from all over the ancient world. 5,300 are in the original Greek and many more translated into other languages like Latin. And guess what? They're ALL THE SAME. Do you really believe that there was a conspiracy throughout the ENTIRE ANCIENT WORLD to alter these texts?
We could pretend that you have a meaningful answer to counter my own.
In the first place did you decide by yourself that he claimed that the Torah/Gospel had been literally changed or you read it somewhere?
The situation in 7th C Arabia was that Prophet Muhammad(pbuh) found corruption in general attitude of the Arabic Jews and Christians, in his neighborhood, and felt that they were not following the correct way. Claims that he said that literal alterations had taken place are probably misinterpretations.
Some Muslim scholars who propose the thesis that the text of the Bible has not been literally altered (obviously, in their opinion they are not in contradiction to the Quran or the Hadith).
1 Syed Ahmad Khan:
”As far as the text of the Bible is concerned, it has not been altered. No attempt was made to present a diverging text as the authentic one.”
From: M.H.Ananikian, “The Reforms and Religious Ideas of Sir Sayyid Ahmad Khan”,
The Moslem World 14 (1934) p.61
2 Muhammad Abduh:
”... the charge of corruption of the Biblical texts makes no sense at all.
It would not have been possible for Jews and Christians everywhere
to agree on changing the text. Even if those in Arabia had done it,
the difference between their book and those of their brothers,
let us say in Syria and Europe, would have been obvious.”
From: Jacques Jomier, “Jesus, The Life of the Messiah”, C.L.S., Madras, 1974, p.216
3 Abdullah ibn ‘Abbas (Mohammed pbuh's cousin and one of his companions)
“The word “Tahrif” [corruption] signifies to change a thing from its original nature; and there is no man who could corrupt a single word of what proceeds from God, so that the Jews and Christians could corrupt only by misrepresenting the meanings of the word of God.''
From: Imam Muhammad Isma'il al-Bukhari in Dictionary of Islam, T.P.Hughes,
Kazi Publications, Inc, 3023-27 West BelmontAvenue, Chicago Il. 60618, 1994, p.62
4 Fakhruddin Razi on the authority of Ibn Abbas, a nephew of Muhammed pbuh:
"The Jews and early Christians were suspected of altering the text of the Taurat and Injil; but in the opinion of eminent doctors and theologians it was not practicable thus to corrupt the text, because those Scriptures were generally known and widely circulated, having been handed down from generation to generation." (I could not find the source for this from the internet)
5 "The early commentators of the Koran and doctors of Islam who did not have a firsthand knowledge of the Bible believed in "Tahrif-I-Manawi" (corruption in meaning) only. (Abdul-Haqq, Sharing Your Faith with a Muslim, p. 38).
Imam Bukhari explains Surah 4:46 as follows; ‘displace words from their right places…means misinterpreted'. On similar lines Imam Ghazali made many analysis of various aspects of Christianity based on the assumption that the Gospels are genuine.
In fact you will find two lists here: The first (which includes Imam Ghazali, Razi) posit that only the meaning of the Bible has been misinterpreted, while the second (which includes Ibn Taymiyaa) posit that the literal words have been changed.
It should be obvious to you by now that had there been a clear claim by the Prophet (as for some reason you think there was) that the texts had been literally changed there would not be this debate.
Regards