Well then those "Christians" were reading something into the text that's not there... Why would blood be forbidden? That's not exclusive to pagan customs.
Blood has always been forbidden in the mosaic law and even before the mosaic law was written. The law was originally given to Noah and the bible does explain why the law on blood is given.
Genesis 9:1
 And God went on to bless Noah and his sons and to say to them: “Be fruitful and become many and fill the earth.... 3 Every moving animal that is alive may serve as food for YOU. ...4 Only flesh with its soul—its blood—YOU must not eat. 5 And, besides that, YOUR blood of YOUR souls shall I ask back.
Leviticus 3:17
“‘It is a statute to time indefinite for YOUR generations, in all YOUR dwelling places: YOU must not eat any fat or any blood at all.’”
Leviticus 7:26
“‘And YOU must not eat any blood in any places where YOU dwell, whether that of fowl or that of beast.
And this verse gives the reason why blood was not to be eaten:
Deuteronomy 12:16
Only the blood YOU must not eat. On the earth you should pour it out as water...23
Simply be firmly resolved not to eat the blood, because the blood is the soul and you must not eat the soul with the flesh
The christian congregation, at the direction of the jewish apostles located in Jerusalem gave the order to gentile believers (people from the nations) that they need only adhere to a handful of the mosaic laws:
Acts 15:22
Then the apostles and the older men together with the whole congregation favored sending chosen men..23 and by their hand they wrote:
“...28 For the holy spirit and we ourselves have favored adding no further burden to YOU, except these necessary things,
to keep abstaining from things sacrificed to idols and from blood and from things strangled and from fornication. If YOU carefully keep yourselves from these things, YOU will prosper. Good health to YOU!”
Paul was simply one of the messengers who took the letter from the apostles back to the congregations to inform them of the decision made by the apostles on the matter of mosaic law.
Read the entire account of Acts 15:1-35.
Even Paul denies teaching against obedience to Mosaic Law in the end of Acts and seems to indicate a belief in the Law in Romans 3:31 and 2:13, the issue is clouded.
there is a difference between being in a covenant relationship with God
based on the mosaic law covenant, and the laws of God in general which a God fearing and righteous person would strive to live by.
Paul does say that the Law was “holy,” “good,” “fine” (Ro 7:12, 16), and anyone who could fully live up to this perfect Law would prove himself a perfect man, worthy of life. (Ro 10:5; Ga 3:12) But considering we are all sinful by nature, it would be impossible anyway.
Even isreal could not abide perfectly by the law and for that reasons, sacrifices for sins could be offered as part of the covenant. Although, without a temple and high priest, no sacrifices for sins can be given to God...so how can someone under mosaic law approach God if they have no high priest to mediate and offer their sacrifices for sins? Without a mediator, how is the mosaic law administered?
And then, Paul even says "As the Law says" when he says that women should submit to their husbands. That would be pointless to say "As the Law says" if the Law is not binding. So was Paul picking and choosing what parts of the Law he thought were still binding?
The mosaic laws are perfect and they show us what
we must strive towards. The covenant of Moses and Isreal with God is not the means by which we approach God anymore...that is the difference.
We are still striving to live by Gods perfect laws, but it is on the bases of Jesus Christ, not on the basis of the covenant God made with Isreal.
How do we know the Spirit was poured on them exactly? Where does it say that such gentiles got into the Act?
The account in Acts 10 explains the Apostle Peters visit to Cornelius. Peter and other jewish brothers testified to the pouring out of holy spirit upon the uncircumcised gentiles.
Acts 10;44
While Peter was yet speaking about these matters the holy spirit fell upon all those hearing the word. 45 And the faithful ones that had come with Peter who were of those circumcised were amazed, because the free gift of the holy spirit was being poured out also upon people of the nations. 46 For they heard them speaking with tongues and magnifying God. Then Peter responded: 47 “Can anyone forbid water so that these might not be baptized who have received the holy spirit even as we have?”
Funny, I don't think James and Peter ever thought that. Also, from where do you derive that they thought the lawless gentiles had the Spirit in them? Can you prove that the Council of Jerusalem's decision was based on the idea that they figured Gentiles were being filled with the Spirit? Be careful with assertions about the Spirit, I must warn you.
Peter's explanation was reported by Lukes account in Acts 11....not only was Cornelius directed by the mouth of an angel, but Peter was also directed in vision to go to Cornelius thus indicating that it was at Gods direction:
11:13 “
He reported to us how he saw the angel stand in his house and say, ‘Dispatch men to Jop′pa and send for Simon who is surnamed Peter, 14 and he will speak those things to you by which you and all your household may get saved.’ 15 But when I started to speak, the holy spirit fell upon them just as it did also upon us in [the] beginning. 16 At this I called to mind the saying of the Lord, how he used to say, ‘John, for his part, baptized with water, but YOU will be baptized in holy spirit.’ 17 If, therefore, God gave the same free gift to them as he also did to us who have believed upon the Lord Jesus Christ, who was I that I should be able to hinder God?”
During the discussions in Jerusalem about the mosaic law and the gentiles, James made a speech highlighting how certain scriptures were seeing fulfillment:
Acts 15:13
After they quit speaking, James answered, saying: “Men, brothers, hear me. 14 Sym′e·on has related thoroughly how God for the first time turned his attention to the nations to take out of them a people for his name.
this idea is in harmony with Isaiah 55:5
Look! A nation that you do not know you will call, and those of a nation who have not known you will run even to you,
Then James specifically mentions a prophecy
Acts 15:15
And with this the words of the Prophets agree, just as it is written, 16 ‘After these things I shall return and rebuild the booth of David that is fallen down; and I shall rebuild its ruins and erect it again, 17 in order that those who remain of the men may earnestly seek Jehovah, together with people of all the nations,...
Now this prophecy is from Amos 9
11
“‘In that day I shall raise up the booth of David that is fallen,...12 to the end that they may take possession of what is left remaining of E′dom, and all the nations upon whom my name has been called,’ is the utterance of Jehovah, who is doing this
So there is plenty of hebrew scriptural evidence that God would eventually bring gentiles, people of the nations, into his worship and this is why the brothers concluded that the mosaic law covenant was not the reason why God was doing that.
It wasnt because these gentiles were becoming proselytes, rather it was because they were putting faith in the name of Jesus Christ and had accepted him as the Messiah promised in the hebrew scritpures. They were motivated by their own hearts to worship God and that is one of Gods requirements...'you must love your God with your whole heart'
Do you not think Jesus specifically commanded obedience to the Mosaic Law himself or do you not go by what Jesus taught? Matthew 5:17-20 trumps all.
well again, there is a difference between following the laws of Moses as a means of coming into the covenant he made with Isreal, and obeying Gods perfect laws because you want to please God....and yes, i do believe Jesus promoted obedience to Gods laws 100%.
However, the purpose of the mosaic covenant with Isreal was to give them a land and make them a nation as promised to the patriarch Abraham. The covenant solidified that arrangement as Moses stated:
Deut 29:1
These are the words of the covenant that Jehovah commanded Moses to conclude with the sons of Israel in the land of Mo′ab aside from the covenant that he had concluded with them in Ho′reb...
13 for the purpose of establishing you today as his people...just as he has sworn to your forefathers Abraham, Isaac and Jacob...
30:
20... that you may dwell upon the ground that Jehovah swore to your forefathers Abraham, Isaac and Jacob to give to them.”
Now ask yourself, if the covenant was for the purpose of making a nation to dwell on the ground promised to Abraham, how on earth are all nations meant to enter that covenant? Are we all expected to move over to Isreal? That would be impossible.
And so enter the new covenant...the one spoken of by Jeremiah....the covenant that all the nations enter into for salvation.