Yup, 'Jizya' is Arabic for 'protection racket'.
If I don't like my government, should I be free from paying taxes?
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Yup, 'Jizya' is Arabic for 'protection racket'.
As I've already said, as long as hadiths confirm the Qur'an, then that's perfectly logical, but when they are used to make proclamations not in the Qur'an, then they're creating Islamic policy that is not from Allah. The Qur'an says several times that Mohamed is nothing more than a messenger, which means he is simply passing along what Gabriel told him. Nowhere does it suggest that he can fill in gaps for Allah. After all, that would make him a "partner", wouldn't it?
So, Shia is not Islam?The hadith says that Islam will flourish under 12 caliphs.
It doesn't say that only those caliphs can interpret the Quran.
Also, the 12 caliphs after Muhammad are not the "12 imams" of Shiism.
If I don't like my government, should I be free from paying taxes?
The Quran forbids to make distinction between God and Messenger:
"Lo! those who disbelieve in Allah and His messengers, and seek to make distinction between Allah and His messengers, and say: We believe in some and disbelieve in others, and seek to choose a way in between, Such are disbelievers in truth; and for disbelievers We prepare a shameful doom" 4:150-151
So, Muslims are not supposed to make any distinction between God and the Messenger. When the Messenger says a Hadith, that is the same as what God says, because the Messenger is only saying what God taught Him.
The only way to try to legitimize the jizya is to pretend it's just another tax. It's not. It's a penalty paid for the crime of not being Muslim.
Where do you get that the message and clarification is the Quran?
Is this from hadiths or conclusion from Quran?
Verse 9:29 spells it out in no uncertain terms.
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Sometimes I can only shake my head in wonder at the things you say.
Mohammad's (s) role as a Messenger is to clarify Quran through his own words.
Explain.
And full circle. This shows that Allah did not make himself clear. With every post you verify the OP.
Are we done here yet?
I did. Read 9:29. It explains the jizya.
I probably won't respond to many more posts unless you come up with something better than your previous efforts.
No problem. God had manifested in Muhammad. God manifests in His messengers. So, when the Quran says, not make any distinction between God and His Messenger is because, while God is God, and Muhammad is Muhammad, yet, God has chosen to be manfested in Muhammad.You are the master of convoluted logic. In essence you are claiming the one thing that Allah hates more than anything else, which is to equate anyone or anything to him. How many verses tell you not to take partners with Allah, yet here you are doing that very thing by saying there's no distinction. Do you really not see that?
I've read it many times, I can't read your mind.
I agree it references it. Does it explain it fully, maybe, maybe you have to put it in over all context of Quran and think of other verses to get what it is. And you also have to understand norms of speech in Arabic.It explains jizya. If you don't think so, please tell me how it doesn't. Be specific.
No problem. God had manifested in Muhammad..
Whoa! Let me stop you right there. There is absolutely nothing in Islam to suggest that. Several verses refer to Mohamed is his messenger and nothing more. To manifest himself in a mortal is an entirely different level that is not even remotely hinted at.
Well, I quoted Hadith and verses. I agree most Muslims do not believe that God manifested Himself in the Person of Muhammad. But, is Islam defined according to what Quran and Hadith says or it is defines as what the majority of Muslims define it?Whoa! Let me stop you right there. There is absolutely nothing in Islam to suggest that. Several verses refer to Mohamed is his messenger and nothing more. To manifest himself in a mortal is an entirely different level that is not even remotely hinted at.