A New Translation...

[Jensen]

Hi Peg,

I understand that the Witnesses have a new translation now? Have you received one yet? Tell us about it if you have seen it or have one.

Jensen

 

[Pegg]

Hi Peg,

I understand that the Witnesses have a new translation now? Have you received one yet? Tell us about it if you have seen it or have one.

Jensen

Hi Jensen,

yes thats right, we've revised our bible and the way certain verses/words are translated.

So far i've enjoyed the modern english it uses. The verse in John 3:17 which says: " This means everlasting life, their taking in knowledge of you the only true God and of the one whom you sent forth, Jesus Christ"

this is now
"This means everlasting life, their coming to know you, the only true God and the one whom you sent forth, Jesus Christ"

the explanation given at the annual general meeting was that simply taking in knowledge is not what leads to salvation. If we really examine why God saves some, its because of the relationship they develop with him and that requires that a person really get to know God intimately.


There are also some other great features which have been added such as the appendix section which has valuable research information. I will go through my notes and offer some more of the revised verses.

 

[JayJayDee]

Hi Peg,

I understand that the Witnesses have a new translation now? Have you received one yet? Tell us about it if you have seen it or have one.

Jensen

The revised NWT is available online as a free app...."JW library" from the app stores for both iPad and android. Also available for Windows 8 I believe.

It is an excellent addition to the library.

 

[Pegg]

something else that has been added are 6 additional places where the name Jehovah appears. This is due to the discovery of the Dead Sea scrolls.... there are 6 places where the tetragrammaton appears in those scrolls so the translation committee included them where they appear.

Appendix A gives an explanation for the revisions.... it explains how our modern english has changed over the past 50 years. One example is that some expressions are not really understood by todays english. The expression 'Long Suffering' to our ears means someone is suffering a long time, but the original meaning of the term is actually 'patience' .... so where the phrase 'long suffering' appears, its been changed to 'patience'

the word 'dumb' today means someone who is stupid or low intelligence.... but in the original language, it meant someone who is 'speechless' So our bible uses the word 'speechless' rather then 'dumb'

the word 'fornication' is used quite a lot in the scriptures.... its not a word we really use these days. So its been changed to 'sexual immorality'

'time indefinite' is now 'everlasting'

'seed' in the context of children is now 'offspring'

Some of the hebrew language uses expressions that dont make sense in english. When the hebrew states "his kidneys' its usually an expression meaning his deepest feelings or emotions. So now the revised bible uses the term 'deepest emotions' rather then 'kidneys'

these are the sorts of revisions that have been made

 

[Jensen]

Thanks very much...will watch for any additional info you may add. Will look it up at your JW site, if I can find it.

Oh, I think most of the improvements that you listed are better.

 

[Jensen]

Hi, it looks as if my post didn't get on, so will try again. Thanks for the replies. I went to your site and did some reading, it reads good so far, easy to understand.

I would like to say that in John 1:1 where it says "him" it can also be translated as "it". Considering that the further back we go in time looking into how much older bibles were translated, we find that it was sometimes translated as"it". Can you show that the oldest manuscripts that we still have today would be more accurately translated as "him" instead of "it" ?

Onto my favorite verse...the NWT says:


Isaiah 41:10 Do not be afraid, for I am with you.+ Do not be anxious, for I am your God.+ I will fortify you, yes, I will help you,+ I will really hold on to you with my right hand of righteousness.’ NWT

and the KJV says:

41:10 Fear thou not; for I am with thee: be not dismayed; for I am thy God: I will strengthen thee; yea, I will help thee; yea, I will uphold thee with the right hand of my righteousness. KJV

which I like so much better, it seems so much more regal ; I love how it reads in the KJV, although it isn't my favorite bible translation.

I also like this verse, just comparing the two, I still prefer the KJV. I love the way it reads. Yet, I like reading many translations, and some of the newer translations do read more smoothly with their more modern language, but I don't feel that the KJV and other older translations are that difficult to understand. Just me I guess....

40:29 He gives power to the tired one
And full might to those lacking strength.*+ 30 Boys will tire out and grow weary,
And young men will stumble and fall,
31 But those hoping in Jehovah will regain power. They will soar on wings like eagles.+ They will run and not grow weary;
They will walk and not tire out.”+ NWT

40:29 He giveth power to the faint; and to them that have no might he increaseth strength.

30 Even the youths shall faint and be weary, and the young men shall utterly fall:

31 But they that wait upon the Lord shall renew their strength; they shall mount up with wings as eagles; they shall run, and not be weary; and they shall walk, and not faint. KJV

thanks,

Jensen

 

[JayJayDee]

I would like to say that in John 1:1 where it says "him" it can also be translated as "it". Considering that the further back we go in time looking into how much older bibles were translated, we find that it was sometimes translated as"it". Can you show that the oldest manuscripts that we still have today would be more accurately translated as "him" instead of "it" ?

I am confused. Where does it say "him" in John 1:1?

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." (KJV)
or
"In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god." (NWT)


EDIT: Just a note for the trinitarians....

"In en the beginning archē was eimi the ho Word logos, and kai the ho Word logos was eimi with pros · ho God theos, and kai the ho Word logos was eimi God theos. (Mounce Interlinear)

I wanted to add the Mounce interlinear translation to demonstrate that "THE God" is "ho theos" and "god" with no definite article "the" to differentiate it from the word used for other gods or god-like ones, which is just "theos"

So "ho" means "THE". This verse is speaking about "THE God" Jehovah, (of whom there is only one) and another god-like (or divine one) one who is called the Word (Logos) who was "with" Jehovah in the "beginning" of creation.

It was the Word (ho logos) who became flesh, not "ho theos""THE God". (John 1:14)

Onto my favorite verse...the NWT says:

Isaiah 41:10 Do not be afraid, for I am with you.+ Do not be anxious, for I am your God.+ I will fortify you, yes, I will help you,+ I will really hold on to you with my right hand of righteousness.’ NWT

and the KJV says:

41:10 Fear thou not; for I am with thee: be not dismayed; for I am thy God: I will strengthen thee; yea, I will help thee; yea, I will uphold thee with the right hand of my righteousness. KJV

which I like so much better, it seems so much more regal ; I love how it reads in the KJV, although it isn't my favorite bible translation.

I also like this verse, just comparing the two, I still prefer the KJV. I love the way it reads. Yet, I like reading many translations, and some of the newer translations do read more smoothly with their more modern language, but I don't feel that the KJV and other older translations are that difficult to understand. Just me I guess....

40:29 He gives power to the tired one
And full might to those lacking strength.*+ 30 Boys will tire out and grow weary,
And young men will stumble and fall,
31 But those hoping in Jehovah will regain power. They will soar on wings like eagles.+ They will run and not grow weary;
They will walk and not tire out.”+ NWT

40:29 He giveth power to the faint; and to them that have no might he increaseth strength.

30 Even the youths shall faint and be weary, and the young men shall utterly fall:

31 But they that wait upon the Lord shall renew their strength; they shall mount up with wings as eagles; they shall run, and not be weary; and they shall walk, and not faint. KJV

I grew up with the KJV and always found it frustrating with the old English thee's and thou's and the "eth's", so when I was introduced to modern English translations, that was the first time I felt that God was talking "to" me, not "over" me.

I often hear people complain when they see the Lord's prayer translated into modern English as if the archaic English of the old KJV was somehow the way Jesus said it. Jesus didn't speak English. Since his ministry was conducted only with the Jews, he would have spoken Hebrew. All of his apostles were Jewish, so although written and translated into other languages, the Bible is of no benefit to anyone if the language of the scriptures is not clearly understood. (1 Cor 14:8, 9)
Words change in meaning over time or are discarded altogether and translations of the Bible have to keep up with the current meaning of the words, not just the words themselves.

For example, do you understand the language of the KJV in its rendering of Genesis 25:29? It says: "Jacob sod pottage and Esau came from the field, and he was faint." Sod pottage??

In the Revised NWT, that uses the English we speak today this verse reads: “On one occasion Jacob was boiling some stew when Esau returned from the field exhausted."
Which one makes sense?

I have seen the inscription on a baby's gravestone: "Suffer the little children to come unto me" from Mark 10:14. But a modern translation renders that verse: "Let the young children come to me".
It has nothing to do with children "suffering" in order to come to Jesus.

So modern translations give us a more accurate rendering of the original language words.

 

[Jensen]

Hi, I failed to notice the mistake, sorry, I meant John 1:

3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
4 In him was life; and the life was the light of men.


Also, I like several of the more modern translations better than the KJV; I just like how those favorite verses read in the KJV bible. I don't consider the KJV as being superior to other bibles.



I have been doing some reading in the NWT, and I do like it, in some ways more than some of my others translation.


Hopefully, I didn't offend you, it wasn't my intention. Sorry, if I have.


Jensen

 

[Pegg]

Hi, it looks as if my post didn't get on, so will try again. Thanks for the replies. I went to your site and did some reading, it reads good so far, easy to understand.

I would like to say that in John 1:1 where it says "him" it can also be translated as "it". Considering that the further back we go in time looking into how much older bibles were translated, we find that it was sometimes translated as"it". Can you show that the oldest manuscripts that we still have today would be more accurately translated as "him" instead of "it" ?

Hi Jensen,

The goal with the revision was to make the text understandable. Thats the most important thing with translation....otherwise we end up getting lost in translation because we have no idea what they are talking about. More importantly, because we spend a lot of time teaching people the bible, we need a translation that 'they' can understand. Especially when teaching people who's main language is not english.

but with regard to John 1:3, “All things came into existence through him"
Im not sure how it could be translated as 'it'...unless they are thinking "all things came into existence through the Word" and are refering to 'the word' as 'it'. However, we know that the 'word' refers to Jesus himself and i guess that is why many translators do use 'him' rather then 'it'

Onto my favorite verse...the NWT says:


Isaiah 41:10 Do not be afraid, for I am with you.+ Do not be anxious, for I am your God.+ I will fortify you, yes, I will help you,+ I will really hold on to you with my right hand of righteousness.’ NWT

and the KJV says:

41:10 Fear thou not; for I am with thee: be not dismayed; for I am thy God: I will strengthen thee; yea, I will help thee; yea, I will uphold thee with the right hand of my righteousness. KJV

which I like so much better, it seems so much more regal ; I love how it reads in the KJV, although it isn't my favorite bible translation.

anyone who likes poetry would certainly like the KJV. But the only problem is that english has changed so much from the 16th century. Some of the terms it uses are now completely different to what they originally meant. For example, Paul visits a 'shambles' in the KJV. What is a 'shambles' by todays language? It usually means something very messy... a messy bedroom or house. But in old english, it meant a meat market.

While ascetics are nice, i think serious students of the bible should use modern language bibles for study purposes because understanding is more important in this case.

Isaiah 41:10 is one of my favourites too. I also really like Jeremiah 29:11*‘For I well know the thoughts that I am thinking toward you,’ declares Jehovah, ‘thoughts of peace, and not of calamity,+ to give you a future and a hope.+ 12 And you will call me and come and pray to me, and I will listen to you.’+
13 “‘You will seek me and find me,+ for you will search for me with all your heart.+ 14 And I will let you find me,’+ declares Jehovah.

 

[Jensen]

Hi Pegg,

Sorry for being late in replying. Thanks for your answer. Yes, I was thinking, as you stated here...

unless they are thinking "all things came into existence through the Word" and are refering to 'the word' as 'it'.

I haven't read more in the NWT, just haven't the time.

Jensen

 

[Pegg]

Hi Pegg,

Sorry for being late in replying. Thanks for your answer. Yes, I was thinking, as you stated here...

unless they are thinking "all things came into existence through the Word" and are refering to 'the word' as 'it'.

I haven't read more in the NWT, just haven't the time.

Jensen

no worries

I guess what we have to ask is if the 'word' refers to Christ or just to the literal written word of scriptures collectively.

To get this into perspective, when you get a chance, have a look at Revelation 19:11-12 and tell me if you think there might be a connection there.

 

[Jensen]

Hi Pegg, I think that the word was the spoken word of God until Jesus began to give us the word of the God, that is the Good News, the gospel....which is why Jesus is called the
Word.

As for Revelation 19:11-12, I looked it up and do not see why you wanted me to read it. Could you please explain?

Jensen

 

[Pegg]

Hi Pegg, I think that the word was the spoken word of God until Jesus began to give us the word of the God, that is the Good News, the gospel....which is why Jesus is called the
Word.

As for Revelation 19:11-12, I looked it up and do not see why you wanted me to read it. Could you please explain?

Jensen

Im sorry, it was vs 11-13

I saw heaven opened, and look! a white horse.+ And the one seated on it is called Faithful+ and True,+ and he judges and carries on war in righteousness.+ 12 His eyes are a fiery flame,+ and on his head are many diadems.* He has a name written that no one knows but he himself, 13 and he is clothed with an outer garment stained* with blood, and he is called by the name The Word+ of God.


this is John identifying Jesus by the title of 'the word'

So if we take this view that Jesus is 'the Word', then John 1:1 makes a lot more sense as to why its a 'him' instead of an 'it'

 

[Jensen]

Thanks Pegg, If I had put in more that verses 11-12 into google search I would have seen what you wished for me to consider. Sorry for that, good reason to use the bible in book form instead to look verses up.

Jensen

 

[Pegg]

Thanks Pegg, If I had put in more that verses 11-12 into google search I would have seen what you wished for me to consider. Sorry for that, good reason to use the bible in book form instead to look verses up.

Jensen

np... the right verse would have helped too


But this example shows why the translation is given as 'him'. A word often can have a couple of different meanings, so translators have to decide which word fits the context and subject best. In the verse you are looking at, it could be translated as 'it' or 'him', but due to other scriptures which say that Jesus is called 'The Word' as a title, then it makes sense to insert 'him' because John is clearly speaking about Jesus.

Does that make sense?

 

[hexler]

If you are thinking outside the box you can download Holy Scriptures from Zoroastrians, Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jews, Christians, Moslems and Bahá’ís.
Interfaith Explorer: Software for iPhone, iPad, Android, Web and Windows PC

 

[Big_TJ]

JWs,
Do you know who are the new members of your Translation Committee?

 

[JayJayDee]

JWs,
Do you know who are the new members of your Translation Committee?

No we are not concerned with who did the revision. There is nothing new in the revised edition. It only contains more modern usage of language, bringing it into the 21st century. All differences are clearly marked and explained in marginal readings. There is also a simple Bible study program in the front of this Bible to explain the basic teachings of God's word. Appendices at the back also have a wealth of information.

It flows very nicely and those who balk at the archaic language of the old KJV will find this translation very easy to read. We love it.

The online version has additional benefits.

You can download it for free through app stores for Apple, android and Windows 8.

 

[Pegg]

JWs,
Do you know who are the new members of your Translation Committee?

no...they are unnamed like some of the books of the bible

 

[Shiranui117]

no...they are unnamed like some of the books of the bible

So how do you know that everyone (or anyone at all for that matter) on the Translation Committee is qualified to make an accurate Bible translation?