Trailblazer
Veteran Member
Maybe, or maybe not, but those miracles are not needed now to know that Jesus was real.The sun darkening was to show the people that Jesus was real. Jesus walked on water for His glory.
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Maybe, or maybe not, but those miracles are not needed now to know that Jesus was real.The sun darkening was to show the people that Jesus was real. Jesus walked on water for His glory.
Read in context, it is obvious that Jesus was referring to what was going on presently in that chapter, not about a second coming in the future:What verse in the Old Testament mentions the second advent? Jesus was also a descendant of Jesse, and he told the apostle Peter about his second coming in John 21:22.
2 After two days will he revive us: in the third day he will raise us up, and we shall live in his sight.
No, that is just your interpretation of the verse. Raise us up does not say anything about a body being raised up.
Maybe, or maybe not, but those miracles are not needed now to know that Jesus was real.
Read in context, it is obvious that Jesus was referring to what was going on presently in that chapter, not about a second coming in the future:
19 This spake he, signifying by what death he should glorify God. And when he had spoken this, he saith unto him, Follow me.
20 Then Peter, turning about, seeth the disciple whom Jesus loved following; which also leaned on his breast at supper, and said, Lord, which is he that betrayeth thee?
21 Peter seeing him saith to Jesus, Lord, and what shall this man do?
22 Jesus saith unto him, If I will that he tarry till I come, what is that to thee? follow thou me.
That's right, but not after the second coming of Jesus, since Jesus never planned to return to earth.
(John 14:19, John 17:4, John 17:11, John 19:30, John 18:36)
19 Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.Jesus was talking about himself in John 2: 19. That verse mirrors Hosea 6:2.
I could.You could say the same about Jesus and the apostles casting out demons.
No.Was he referring to ascending to heaven?
That is true, but Jesus was also saying His kingdom is not of this world.In John 18:36 Jesus was talking about his submission to being arrested by Pontius Pilate.
That is true, but Jesus was also saying His kingdom is not of this world.
John 18:36 Jesus answered, My kingdom is not of this world: if my kingdom were of this world, then would my servants fight, that I should not be delivered to the Jews: but now is my kingdom not from hence.
That is another meaning of the verse, as verses can have many meanings.Jesus was referring to knowing God is about having a relationship with God not about wordly authority. The apostles were not his officers.
I really don't know what Jesus was referring to in John 21.In the next book, Acts, Jesus ascended to heaven. You mentioned that Jesus was talking about what was going on presently in that chapter. What do you think Jesus could have been referring to? Acts was the next chapter.
Living in Persia is not a reason Bahaullah could not be a descendant of Jesse.And why someone born in Persia a couple thousand years later would be known to be a descendant of David's father?
No, the NT does not have any verse regarding Genealogy of Jesus. In case you missed, this was discussed in details in this thread.The NT makes its argument why it is Jesus. And Baha'i writings tells why it isn't Jesus, but rather... Baha'u'llah.
What proof is there of either one? We probably have no proof of there even being a Jesse... accept that the Bible says so.
I suggest the ship or Ark, is the symbol of the Faith of God.I really don't know what Jesus was referring to in John 21.
I really don't know what Jesus was referring to in John 21.
We already talked about many of them. But for example, where in OT says, "a Rod comes Out of Jesse". This is Bahaullah, not Jesus.What verses do you think say or imply multiple "Messiahs"? And by that I mean more than one "The Messiah."
How could you tell?From a biblical standpoint Jesus was probably referring to His second coming.
Living in Persia is not a reason Bahaullah could not be a descendant of Jesse.
Many Jews immigrated to Persia, when they Jews were exiled.
No, the NT does not have any verse regarding Genealogy of Jesus. In case you missed, this was discussed in details in this thread.
There is no direct proof whether Bahaullah was a descendant of Jesse. But the evidence is, Baha'u'llah's family was known to be a descendant of Jewish Kings.
In the same way that, the family of the Bab was known to be descendants of Prophet Muhammad.
There is no Evidence for Jesus in NT. It is the Christians who think Jesus must have been a descendant of Jesse, because they think OT is only and only about Jesus.