We are in the Figs not John 1:1
Sure you could stick to John 1:1
Tell me if you get past John 2:1
People may now ask, "If John 1:1 does not express the pre-existence of Christ as God already with the Father, what then does the verse mean?" In order to find out the biblical meaning of the verse in question, it must first be understood that there are three elements in John 1:1, namely:
1. In the beginning was the Word
2. And the Word was with God
3. And the Word was God
Let us take a look at this verse piece by piece to come to the true understanding of John 1:1. What is the meaning of the first segment, "In the beginning was the Word," Does it imply that Christ is God who had substance or state of being with God? The answer can be found in Apostle Paul's letter to the Ephesians,
"This was according to the eternal purpose which be realized in Christ Jesus our Lord." (Eph. 3:11,
There is an eternal purpose or plan which was realized in Jesus Christ. Since when did God conceive of this plan? Again the Apostle Paul further explains in Ephesians 3:9.
"And to make all men see what is the plan of the mystery hidden for ages in God who created all things;" Ibid.)
Paul tells us that the purpose or plan of God was conceived and was hidden for ages. In the same manner, John is teaching that in the beginning, ages ago, God already planned that there would be a Christ. When was this 'ages' ago? This is further revealed by the Apostle Peter in I Peter 1:20.
"For He was foreknown before the foundation of the world, but has appeared in these last times for the sake of you." (NASB)
There is an argument of some people who say even though Christ was planned before the foundation of the world, He was existing with God in the beginning in His present state of being. If this were the case and if people would continue to hold to such a line of reasoning what would be the disastrous effect in clinging to such a belief? In Ephesians 1:4, according to the Apostle Paul who else were chosen or planned before the foundation of the world?
"...just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and blameless before Him, in love." (Ibid.)
Man was also chosen to be in Christ before the foundation of the world. Is it correct to infer that all men had pre-existence in state of being? This is not what the apostle is teaching. It can be read quite clearly in the book of Genesis that God created the world before he created man. Paul is teaching that man was chosen or planned to be in Christ. Just as God also planned that there would be a Christ.
Attested to By Theologians
Therefore when the Bible speaks of a plan as it does with Christ, it does not mean something with substance or state of being. In fact if we were to consult other religious authorities as to how they understand John 1:1, what is their understanding of the verse?
View attachment 32661
The
New American Catholic Edition, Douay Confraternity Bible with comments and footnotes of verses will enable us to see the Catholic Church's understanding of the verse. In the footnote of this Bible for John 1:1 this is what they have stated.
"St. John employs the term Word. It is so used only by St. John and designates the Son as a kind of intellectual emanation from the Father."
If we would consult a dictionary as to the meanings of intellectual and emanation, the understanding of the verse by Catholic authorities would become much clearer.
Intellectual-- "devoted to matters of the mind."
Emanation--"to come out from a source." In other words "intellectual emanation from the Father" means a thought coming from the Father.
Furthermore, it must be remembered that the original language used in writing the New Testament is Greek. What is the Greek word for "Word" in John 1:1 and does it mean something with substance or already having a state of being? Turning again to Dr. Ryrie's comments in the Ryrie Study Bible, he states this on page 1599:
"Word (Greek: logos). Logos means
word,
thought,
concept, and
the expressions thereof."
Word or logos in the Greek language means
thought or
concept. This is very similar to what the Catholic authorities state as to the meaning of "Word." In fact, in the secular language of the Greeks,
logos does not change its meaning, as can be read from the
The New Encyclopaedia Britannica Micropaedia.
"Logos (Greek: 'word', 'reason,' or 'plan') (P. 302)
All these terms, which are descriptive of the word logos, do not indicate something with substance or state of being.
Intellectual emanation, thought, concept, reason,and
plan are terms that refer to things that are abstract and without substance. Therefore, when Apostle John wrote, "In the beginning was the Word," and the Apostle Paul wrote, "the plan of the mystery hidden for ages in God," and Peter wrote, "He was foreknown before the foundation of the world," the Bible is not teaching that Christ eternally existed with state of being, but rather, God had a plan that there would be a Christ.
'And The Word Was With God'
This now leads us to the second part of the verse," the Word was with God." What is the meaning of this portion of the verse? As mentioned before in Ephesians 3:9, 11 and I Peter 1:20, there is a plan of God that there would be a Christ. Since it was God who thought of it, it follows that the word or plan was with God, because the source and origin of the word is God. Did this plan which originated with God remain only with Him? Did it remain hidden with God, who solely knows of it for all times? In Romans 1:2-3 the Apostle Paul reveals God's will and purpose.
"...which He promised beforehand through His prophets in the Holy Scriptures, concerning His Son who was born of a descendant of David according to the flesh." (NASB)
God's plan did not remain with Him hidden in mystery but was revealed to mankind through His prophets. He revealed it in the form of a promise that we can find written in the Holy Scriptures.
'And The Word Was God'
This brings us to the third and last part of the verse, "and the Word was God." This is the reason why many people today believe that Christ is God. They say, "Can't you see that Christ is the Word, and the Word was God, therefore Christ is God!"
This is a hasty conclusion on their part regarding John 1:1. What is the biblical meaning of what John wrote "and the Word was God?" The Gospel according to Luke shows the uniqueness of God's word.
"For no word from God shall be void of power." (Lk 1:37,. ASV)
When John wrote, ". . .and the Word was God," he was not teaching that Christ is God but rather he was showing the quality of God's Word. This unique characteristic of the Word is that there is no word of God void of power. God's word possesses His power. What about God? What is the quality of God? God himself declares His uniqueness in Genesis 17:1.
"Now when Abram was ninety-nine years old, the Lord appeared to Abram and said to him, 'I am God Almighty,..." (NASB)
The quality of God is He is almighty or all-powerful, likewise, His words are powerful. This is why John said, "... and the Word was God." John was teaching God's word is powerful as the One who had spoken the word is all-powerful.
This is also attested to by other theologians like those who compiled The New Bible Dictionary, in reference to John 1:1 it is stated thus:
"The Word possesses a like power to God who speaks it." (p. 744)
This is not the only book written by theologians which agrees to the fact that the phrase "and the Word was God," speaks of the quality of the Word in power rather than to Christ allegedly having a state of being as God or pre-existing as God. In a book entitled An Idiom Book of New Testament Greek, by C.F.D. Moule, this is stated: "It is necessarily without the article (Theos not O'Theos) in as much as it describes the nature of the Word and does not identify His Person." (p. 116)
Moule is referring to the grammatical construction of the phrase, "the word was God," in the original Greek language. The Greek word in question is "Theos." When "Theos is preceded by the article "o" it indicates that God is being used as a noun. But what can be seen in the existing Greek manuscript of John 1:1 is that the article "o" is not present before the word Theos. This being the case, "theos" is not used as a noun but as an adjective. Apostle John used the word, "Theos," to express the quality of the Word rather than identifying the person. In other words, he employs the word Theos in describing the logos that the logos possesses the quality of God and not that the logos is God in state of being. The English equivalent of "Theos" without the article "o" would be the adjective divine. This is proven by other Bible translations such as Moffatt's rendition of the verse. Thus it is stated in John 1:1.
"The Logos existed in the very beginning, the Logos was with God, the Logos was divine."
This is also seen in the Smith-Goodspeed translation of the Bible in the same verse John 1:1,
"In the beginning the Word existed. The Word was with God, and the Word was divine."
Therefore, as much as people would like to assert that Christ is God because the Word was God, such a belief, however, is without foundation. The Greek manuscripts of John 1:1 do not support their claim. Even those Bible translators who are proficient in the Greek of the New Testament agree that "Theos" is being employed as an adjective describing the quality of the Word. Since the Word originated from God and the quality of God is powerful, so likewise is His Word. Why then is the Word of God powerful? God declares in Isaiah 46:11 the reason why His word has power.
"...Truly I have spoken; truly I will bring it to pass. I have planned it, surely I will do it." (NASB)
The word of God has power because God will do what He has planned, or will bring it to pass. What is the proof that what God has planned will come to pass hence His words have power? In John 1:14 --
"And the Word was made flesh..." (KJV).
God's plan that there would be a Christ came to pass. His word has power. But does this mean that the word has power by itself? No. The Word does not possess power by itself, because the Word did not make itself flesh. It was made flesh. Someone made the Word flesh. Who made it flesh? It was the One who spoke the Word, God the Father, the Creator of all things. The biblical meaning of "the Word was made flesh" is explained by the Apostle Paul in Galatians 4:4--
"But when the fulness of time came, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the Law." (NASB)
The Word was made flesh meant that God's plan was realized when God sent His Son born of a woman.