dandbj13
Member
I always understood the passage in 1Ti. 2:4 to mean that god had a strong desire for everyone to be saved, past, present, and future. But the rest of the Bible does not support universalism. Jesus makes it clear that the vast majority will enter into the wrong gate.
I also thought god's will was inviolable. What god wants, god gets. Nothing can stand in the way of his will. No amount of human free will can change that. So if even one person goes unsaved, it has to be because god didn't want that person to be saved. How much more true does that have to be if most people will not be saved?
All of that is before you get to the declaration in Romans 9 that some are created to be vessels of destruction. This means the Bible offers two opposing views of god's will for salvation. One view is that god wants everyone to be saved. And the other view is that there are some created who were never intended to be saved. Which is it?
I also thought god's will was inviolable. What god wants, god gets. Nothing can stand in the way of his will. No amount of human free will can change that. So if even one person goes unsaved, it has to be because god didn't want that person to be saved. How much more true does that have to be if most people will not be saved?
All of that is before you get to the declaration in Romans 9 that some are created to be vessels of destruction. This means the Bible offers two opposing views of god's will for salvation. One view is that god wants everyone to be saved. And the other view is that there are some created who were never intended to be saved. Which is it?