Why does GOD want us to Observe the Sabbath?

[EtuMalku]

What a cacophony of dribbling scrapture!

The enslavement of the Hebrews in Egypt is recounted in Jehovah-based religious texts, but there is no historical record of its ever happening. Although the Bible and other books tell that Hebrews were captive for so-many generations and eventually numbered 2 million, there is no record in Egyptian writings or on their monuments.

If this is the case, then the pyramids were not built by Hebrew slaves, Moses didn't lead the people over the Red Sea, and the 40-year sojourn in the wilderness didn't take place because of enslavement.

The Hebrews walked into Egypt, rather they were brought into Egypt with Pharaoh's own wagons (Genesis 45:19,21,27). They were not slaves, and they were not mistreated. At this time Joseph was vice royal, because of this they held a very favorable position among the Egyptians (Genesis- 45:18-24). The Bible tells us that the oppression of the Hebrews began after Joseph, all his brethren, and the entire generation that entered Egypt died out. Then, there was a population growth among the Hebrews (Exodus 1:6-11).

Scripture also says that Joseph lived for 110 years. He saw his son Ephraim's children of the third generation: the children also of Machir the son of Manasseh (Joseph's other son) were brought up on Joseph's knees (Gen. 50:23,26). Joseph lived long enough to see his great grandchildren.
The children of Israel were only in Egypt 430 years. In order for the prophecy in Genesis 15:13 to be fulfilled, they would have to have been oppressed for 400 years, so this means that after 30 years of being in Egypt, the evil treatment should have begun, but the fact is, thirty years after their arrival, they were still in good favor with the Egyptians.
As was stated, the oppression began after Joseph died, and Joseph's death took place well after their first 30 years in Egypt. Also, during the time of Joseph's death, the Hebrews were still treated well by the Egyptians. The evidence for this can be found in Genesis 50:26.
We are told that Joseph was embalmed and put into a coffin in Egypt. In ancient Egypt, embalming and coffin burial's were reserved for royalty, members of Pharaoh's court and the rich. So this tells us Joseph was still in good favor with the Egyptians when he died, and if Joseph was still treated well by the Egyptians at his death, so were the Hebrews.
Exodus 1:8 says, "Now, there rose up a new king over Egypt, which knew not Joseph." This is a very profound statement because Joseph was second in charge to Pharaoh (Exodus 41:42-44). Being vice royal would have made Joseph a very popular and well known man throughout the land of Egypt, particularly in the house of Pharaoh. Ancient Egyptian history tells us that one could only claim the Pharaoh's throne if:
1. He was the son of the Pharaoh, a prince
2. He was a high ranking member of the king's court
3. He was another male member of the Pharaoh's family.
4. If a coup took place.

In any case, the next Pharaoh would have known who Joseph was, because Joseph was also in the kings court and knew all of the king's sons, all the high ranking members, and all of Pharaoh's male family members.

 

[EtuMalku]

Scholars have stated that Joseph and the Hebrews were in Egypt when a people known as the Hyksos were in charge.

They try to make a point that the Hyksos were the ones showing favor to the Hebrews and not the native Egyptians. The Hyksos also known as the shepherd kings did conquer and rule Egypt for over 200 years. If we look deeply into scripture we'll find that the Egyptians in Joseph's time were in fact native Egyptians.
First, let's consider the conversation Joseph had with the Hebrews who were first to arrive in Egypt. He was instructing them on how to respond to one of Pharaoh's questions.
In verse 34 of Genesis 46:31-34, Joseph says to them, when Pharaoh asks their occupation, "That ye should say, your servants trade have been about cattle from our youth even until now, both we, and also our fathers: that you may dwell in the land of Goshen; FOR EVERY SHEPHERD IS AN ABOMINATION UNTO THE EGYPTIANS."
This statement alone proves that the Hyksos were not in charge of Egypt during the time of Joseph. The Hyskos were known as the shepherd kings or kings of the shepherds, so why would every shepherd be an abomination to the SHEPHERD KINGS? But every shepherd would be an abomination to native Egyptians, because the shepherd kings (Hyksos) had brought GREAT HUMILIATION to the Egyptians.Next lets look at what happened after Ysrayl (Jacob) died, and the thing Joseph had done to his body.
Genesis 50:2-3, "And Joseph commanded his servants the physicians to embalm his father: and the physicians EMBALMED YSRAYL"
(3), "And forty days were fulfilled for him; FOR SO ARE FULFILLED THE DAYS OF THOSE WHICH ARE EMBALMED: and the Egyptians mourned for him 70 days."
Embalming was a practice of the native Egyptians. They were the first culture on earth to embalm their dead. Embalming was not done to all the population of Egypt, just a select few.

The practice of embalming was something done by a highly developed society, the Hyksos on the other hand were shepherds and embalming was more than likely not in their culture. So, if the Hyksos were ruling Egypt during the time of Joseph, why did they retain Egyptian culture? When a nation conquers another, the conqueror always places their culture above that of the conquered nation's.
This is one way that the conqueror shows superiority over the conquered, this has always been the case in ancient and modern times. (This is exactly what has happened with the invasion of the Americas by the Europeans). Because these Egyptians were still embalming according to native Egyptian culture, it stands to reason, that native Egyptians were ruling Egypt.
Scripture clearly shows that Egyptians were ruling Egypt during the time of Joseph and the Hebrews' sojourn.
Now, back to my point of the new king coming to power and not knowing Joseph. In order for this to happen, a few Pharaoh's had to have come to power and with each of them a new vice royal / government. This also means that after Joseph's death, enough time had elapsed where Joseph's memory in the house of Pharaoh was long forgotten, and the Hebrews were no longer seen as good neighbors but a foreign threat.
This is not hard to believe, ask the average Citizen of your country "who was in power at the turn of the 20th century", who was second in authority. Many if not all people (including governmental officials) will not know the answer.

Many years had passed and Joseph and his good deeds were long forgotten. How much time had elapsed? We can only speculate, but we can be assured that it was more than the 30 years of the 430 that they spent in Egypt.
The Hebrews oppression in Egypt did not last 400 years. Exactly how long did it last? We can only speculate on that as well, but we do know that it lasted no less than 80 years. This was the age of Moses when the Hebrews were liberated. Israel was in slavery from the time Moses was born to the time they were freed, which was 80 years.
Acts 7:6, says that the Hebrews would be brought into bondage in a strange land and those that bring them into bondage will entreat them evil 400 years, meaning no more than 499 years and no less than 399.
If we put this with the other information that has been presented on this site, we'll see that this prophecy was fulfilled with the advent of the trans-Atlantic slave trade.
Any good "black" history book will tell you that only the Hebrews (so called blacks) have been mistreated continually for over 400 years, with every form of racism including slavery, lynching, segregation, Jim Crowism, and the list goes on and on. It has been a non-stop oppression, which still continues today.
The Hebrews were brought to this hemisphere as slaves in the 1500's which was over 400 years ago. If this prophecy of being in a strange land 400 years and being treated evil didn't happen in Egypt, then where?
The only feasible answer would be in the Americas. This is the strange land that is not ours, this is where we have been afflicted continually for 400 years.
Acts 7:6 tells us that the Hebrews were to be brought into bondage. Ancient Ysrayl was not brought in bondage to Egypt they, as I have already mentioned, were in good favor with the Egyptians of Joseph's day. They lived peacefully with them in the beginning, and were not made slaves until much later.

Only the Hebrews of the Americas were brought into bondage into a strange land and entreated evil for over 400 years. No other group can prove that this has happened to them just as prophecy said it would.
In the Apocalypse of Abraham, 32:1-6, states: "Therefore, hear Abraham, and see, behold your seventh generation shall go with you. And they will go out into an alien land. And they will enslave them and oppress them as for one hour of the impious age. But of the nation whom they shall serve I am the judge." And the almighty also said this: "Have you heard Abraham, what I told you, what your tribe will encounter in THE LAST DAYS. Abraham having heard, accepted the words of the almighty in his heart."
The prophecy in Genesis 15, is to be fulfilled in these last days. It was not fulfilled in Egypt.
The 400 years in Genesis 15:13, is not to exceed 499 years.
We have been here for over 400 years (not to exceed 500 and not less than 399), and we're in a strange land that is not our own.
We are not owners of this land, we are only citizens. If the rulers decide we can no longer be citizens, what will stop them from deporting us to some other place?
I only say that, so you the reader will understand how Genesis 15:13 was a prophecy for the latter days, in which we are living now.

 

[Lucius7]

Scholars have stated that Joseph and the Hebrews were in Egypt when a people known as the Hyksos were in charge.

They try to make a point that the Hyksos were the ones showing favor to the Hebrews and not the native Egyptians. The Hyksos also known as the shepherd kings did conquer and rule Egypt for over 200 years. If we look deeply into scripture we'll find that the Egyptians in Joseph's time were in fact native Egyptians.
First, let's consider the conversation Joseph had with the Hebrews who were first to arrive in Egypt. He was instructing them on how to respond to one of Pharaoh's questions.
In verse 34 of Genesis 46:31-34, Joseph says to them, when Pharaoh asks their occupation, "That ye should say, your servants trade have been about cattle from our youth even until now, both we, and also our fathers: that you may dwell in the land of Goshen; FOR EVERY SHEPHERD IS AN ABOMINATION UNTO THE EGYPTIANS."
This statement alone proves that the Hyksos were not in charge of Egypt during the time of Joseph. The Hyskos were known as the shepherd kings or kings of the shepherds, so why would every shepherd be an abomination to the SHEPHERD KINGS? But every shepherd would be an abomination to native Egyptians, because the shepherd kings (Hyksos) had brought GREAT HUMILIATION to the Egyptians.Next lets look at what happened after Ysrayl (Jacob) died, and the thing Joseph had done to his body.
Genesis 50:2-3, "And Joseph commanded his servants the physicians to embalm his father: and the physicians EMBALMED YSRAYL"
(3), "And forty days were fulfilled for him; FOR SO ARE FULFILLED THE DAYS OF THOSE WHICH ARE EMBALMED: and the Egyptians mourned for him 70 days."
Embalming was a practice of the native Egyptians. They were the first culture on earth to embalm their dead. Embalming was not done to all the population of Egypt, just a select few.

The practice of embalming was something done by a highly developed society, the Hyksos on the other hand were shepherds and embalming was more than likely not in their culture. So, if the Hyksos were ruling Egypt during the time of Joseph, why did they retain Egyptian culture? When a nation conquers another, the conqueror always places their culture above that of the conquered nation's.
This is one way that the conqueror shows superiority over the conquered, this has always been the case in ancient and modern times. (This is exactly what has happened with the invasion of the Americas by the Europeans). Because these Egyptians were still embalming according to native Egyptian culture, it stands to reason, that native Egyptians were ruling Egypt.
Scripture clearly shows that Egyptians were ruling Egypt during the time of Joseph and the Hebrews' sojourn.
Now, back to my point of the new king coming to power and not knowing Joseph. In order for this to happen, a few Pharaoh's had to have come to power and with each of them a new vice royal / government. This also means that after Joseph's death, enough time had elapsed where Joseph's memory in the house of Pharaoh was long forgotten, and the Hebrews were no longer seen as good neighbors but a foreign threat.
This is not hard to believe, ask the average Citizen of your country "who was in power at the turn of the 20th century", who was second in authority. Many if not all people (including governmental officials) will not know the answer.

Many years had passed and Joseph and his good deeds were long forgotten. How much time had elapsed? We can only speculate, but we can be assured that it was more than the 30 years of the 430 that they spent in Egypt.
The Hebrews oppression in Egypt did not last 400 years. Exactly how long did it last? We can only speculate on that as well, but we do know that it lasted no less than 80 years. This was the age of Moses when the Hebrews were liberated. Israel was in slavery from the time Moses was born to the time they were freed, which was 80 years.
Acts 7:6, says that the Hebrews would be brought into bondage in a strange land and those that bring them into bondage will entreat them evil 400 years, meaning no more than 499 years and no less than 399.
If we put this with the other information that has been presented on this site, we'll see that this prophecy was fulfilled with the advent of the trans-Atlantic slave trade.
Any good "black" history book will tell you that only the Hebrews (so called blacks) have been mistreated continually for over 400 years, with every form of racism including slavery, lynching, segregation, Jim Crowism, and the list goes on and on. It has been a non-stop oppression, which still continues today.
The Hebrews were brought to this hemisphere as slaves in the 1500's which was over 400 years ago. If this prophecy of being in a strange land 400 years and being treated evil didn't happen in Egypt, then where?
The only feasible answer would be in the Americas. This is the strange land that is not ours, this is where we have been afflicted continually for 400 years.
Acts 7:6 tells us that the Hebrews were to be brought into bondage. Ancient Ysrayl was not brought in bondage to Egypt they, as I have already mentioned, were in good favor with the Egyptians of Joseph's day. They lived peacefully with them in the beginning, and were not made slaves until much later.

Only the Hebrews of the Americas were brought into bondage into a strange land and entreated evil for over 400 years. No other group can prove that this has happened to them just as prophecy said it would.
In the Apocalypse of Abraham, 32:1-6, states: "Therefore, hear Abraham, and see, behold your seventh generation shall go with you. And they will go out into an alien land. And they will enslave them and oppress them as for one hour of the impious age. But of the nation whom they shall serve I am the judge." And the almighty also said this: "Have you heard Abraham, what I told you, what your tribe will encounter in THE LAST DAYS. Abraham having heard, accepted the words of the almighty in his heart."
The prophecy in Genesis 15, is to be fulfilled in these last days. It was not fulfilled in Egypt.
The 400 years in Genesis 15:13, is not to exceed 499 years.
We have been here for over 400 years (not to exceed 500 and not less than 399), and we're in a strange land that is not our own.
We are not owners of this land, we are only citizens. If the rulers decide we can no longer be citizens, what will stop them from deporting us to some other place?
I only say that, so you the reader will understand how Genesis 15:13 was a prophecy for the latter days, in which we are living now.

MAT 7:6 ¶ Give not that which is holy unto the dogs, neither cast ye your
pearls before swine, lest they trample them under their feet, and
turn again and rend you.

 

[EtuMalku]

MAT 7:6 ¶ Give not that which is holy unto the dogs, neither cast ye your
pearls before swine, lest they trample them under their feet, and
turn again and rend you.

Exodus 35:2 For six days, work is to be done, but the seventh day shall be your holy day, a Sabbath of rest to the LORD. Whoever does any work on it must be put to death.

 

[Lucius7]

Exodus 35:2 For six days, work is to be done, but the seventh day shall be your holy day, a Sabbath of rest to the LORD. Whoever does any work on it must be put to death.

that is correct

 

[belever]

Because the very foundation of GOD's plan and purpose for humanity is centered around His Sabbaths, and because the mass of humanity is decieved regarding the Sabbath and it's relevance, I wanted to see what people percieve to be the purpose of the weekly Sabbath and other Sabbaths.

Why did GOD sanctify the Sabbath day and make it Holy?

Why does He command it's observance for all those who desire to be a part of HIS Divine Family?

Why did He give us other Sabbaths to observe in addition to the weekly Sabbath?

Why is observing the Sabbath necessary to actually become an ultimate beneficiary of GODs plan?_________________________________________________
im not realy interested on this subject but i did find this information in my library:

​

​

​

​

Are​

Christians under obligation to keep a weekly sabbath day?​

Ex. 31:16, 17: "The sons of Israel must keep the sabbath, so as to carry out the sabbath during their generations. It is a covenant to time indefinite ["a perpetual covenant," RS]. Between me and the sons of Israel it is a sign to time indefinite." (Notice that sabbath observance was a sign between God and Israel; this would not be the case if everyone else were also obligated to keep the Sabbath. The Hebrew word rendered "perpetual" in RS is 'oh·lam´, which basically means a period of time that, from the standpoint of the present, is indefinite or hidden from sight but of long duration. That can mean forever, but not necessarily so. At Numbers 25:13 the same Hebrew word is applied to the priesthood, which later ended, according to Hebrews 7:12.)
Rom. 10:4: "Christ is the end of the Law, so that everyone exercising faith may have righteousness." (Sabbath keeping was a part of that Law. God used Christ to bring that Law to its end. Our having a righteous standing with God depends on faith in Christ, not on keeping a weekly sabbath.) (Also Galatians 4:9-11; Ephesians 2:13-16)​

Col. 2:13-16: "[God] kindly forgave us all our trespasses and blotted out the handwritten document against us, which consisted of decrees and which was in opposition to us . . . Therefore let no man judge you in eating and drinking or in respect of a festival or of an observance of the new moon or of a sabbath." (If a person was under the Mosaic Law and was judged guilty

 

[belever]

What​

​

About Jesus and His Apostles?​

Did Jesus observe the sabbath? The religious leaders of his day found fault with Jesus in this regard, but the fact remains that as a Jew born under the Law, he did indeed observe the sabbath. (Gal. 4:4) He kept the sabbath as God’s Word (not the Pharisees) directed. When challenged, he argued, not that the sabbath did not apply to him, but, rather, that it was "lawful to do a fine thing on the sabbath." (Matt. 12:12) However, he also said that he came "to fulfill" the Law. (Matt. 5:17) How did this affect his disciples?​

After Jesus’ death, resurrection and ascension into heaven did they continue to keep the sabbath? No. But they did take advantage of local customs to preach to the people who usually gathered on the sabbath. Thus we read that Paul and his companions entered a synagogue on the sabbath. Why? Because that is when people were there. (Acts 13:14-16) And it was their listeners, accustomed to gathering on the sabbath, that asked that they be permitted to hear more on the following sabbath. (Acts 13:42-44) Whenever the sabbath is mentioned in the book of Acts, it is in connection with non-Christian worship, either at a synagogue or other place of prayer.—Acts 16:11-13; 17:1-3; 18:4.

 

[Amazed]

Luke 4:16:

And He came to Natsareth, where He had been brought up. And according to His practice, He went into the congregation on the Sabbath day, and stood up to read.

 

[Amazed]

Matthew 5:17-20
“Do not think that I came to destroy the Torah or the Prophets. I did not come to destroy but to complete. 18 “For truly, I say to you, till the heaven and the earth pass away, one jot or one tittle shall by no means pass from the Torah till all be done. 19 “Whoever, then, breaks one of the least of these commands, and teaches men so, shall be called least in the reign of the heavens; but whoever does and teaches them, he shall be called great in the reign of the heavens. 20 “For I say to you, that unless your righteousness exceeds that of the scribes and Pharisees, you shall by no means enter into the reign of the heavens.”
Note: The Law will not pass away till ALL is done.

Luke 16:17
“It is easier for the heaven and the earth to pass away than for one tittle of the Torah to fall.”

 

[Arlanbb]

LUCIUS7 ~ Thank you for the complement on my post. It is to bad that I can't do the same for you. You have so many mis-statements it is hard for me to know where to begin. You have told us that Adamic man has only been around for 5985 years which means that HOMO SAPIENS SAPIENS have only been around for 5985. But below you tell us that HOMO SAPIENS SAPIENS were living in Qafzeh, Israel back to YBA 84,020 or 85,005 BC ??????????

-Inhabitants of Africa begin outward migration to Eurasia. (YBA-94,020)
-Anatomically modern human-types living in Qafzeh, Israel. (YBA 84, 020)
-Anatomically modern human-types enter and begin to colonize Europe. They are living simultaneously with the indigenous Neanderthals. (YBA- 34,020)
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

-I have another book used in archaeology called: ARCHAEOLOGY OF THE LAND OF THE BIBLE - 10,000-586 BCE". This book tells of all the people that had lived and died in Palestine in the last 12,000 years. These are real humans like you and I with the same type of DNA as you have. On page 39 is a map of all the major dig sites in Israel of cities that are up to 10,000 years old. There are 22 cities. One of them is Jericho [oldest] and another is Shaar Hogolan where I spent two summers digging. People live and built houses in Shaar Hogolan from aout 6400 to 5800 BC long before your so called creation of Adam.


-Most of this has already been addressed in the historical record above. Pre-Adamic humans built tools, musical instruments, shelters and huts, and did live in Palestine and Israel. These were the descendants and ancestors of the humanoid species’ listed above. You are arguing under the assumptions that only humans use tools, play music and build cities, despite the fact that the modern animal kingdom can supply innumerous examples of animals that can do all of the above by design. Why would you expect that creatures with all of our same physical characteristics would have lived and built in a way that is not similar to our own species? How else would they have thrived and survived and satisfied their needs? Though there intellectual capacity for advanced reasoning were not as developed to the extent that ours is, they would certainly have been considered among the most intelligent and logical species in the pre-Adamic world. I assure you without any shadow of a doubt, using GODs record and in many respects, mans record too, that the anatomically modern human-type beings which lived in Palestine were NOT post-Adamic humans. There is no confirmed scientific or otherwise proof which can clearly and truthfully identify those remains with our modern human species. Any attempt to make assumptions based on theories are not fully justified.


I will address the above in Blue You say there is NO scientific proof that pre-Adamic people lived before 5985 years ago. You have confirmed that the first man goes back about 4.5 million and Homo sapiens Neanderthals last existed about 30,000 years ago. You also confirmed that sapiens sapiens and Neanderthals existed together for a few 1,000 of years. Now my question is very simple.
If Neanderthals all died out about 30,000 years ago then any people living on earth say 20,000 years ago or 12,000 ago in Palestine could not be Neanderthals, correct ??????? And that has been proven via DNA.

When I was involved in the dig at SHA'AR HAGOLAN in 1997-9 in what is called the Yarmukian culture [6400-5800BC] they did DNA on bones, C-14 on seeds, and bones and wood. There were up to 3000 Homo sapiens sapiens people living in that area for at least 600 years.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Man has been trying to explain history outside of GODs Word since ancient Babylon. Pseudo science has become a massive multi-trillion dollar propaganda tool internationally. It takes real events, history and evidence and applies flawed logic and science to deceive humanity.

So are you saying that I am "deceiving humanity" with evidence of DNA??????
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I have an even more comprehensive archive of dated and compiled post-Adamic human history to show world sabbatical history and secular history dating back well before the Exodus from Egypt and the formation of the written Hebrew calendar. Before words and scribes mankind kept flawless records of time and dates through astrology, and observance of the seasons and primarily, through counting Sabbaths in 7 day increments for thousands of years. Due to time, I just can’t enter into that topic right now because I would like to devote some time to responding to other posts.
"Due to time...." I have heard that before. So far you have given no references to what you have said. So far you have not given any references to where you have come up with 855 x 7 sabbaths for 5985 years for Adamic people. It looks like we are just waisting our time posting to you. Your words mean NOTHING WITHOUT EVIDENCE FOR WHAT YOU SAY. Just because you wrote it down somewhere does not give it being true. Without evidence for 5985 years, your Sabbath statements all fall to the ground - they have no meaning.

This has already turned into a short essay and could go on for another 100 pages before concluding accurately. I have read your second post and can answer all of your challenges in detail with even more historical data but for the sake of time I am going to refrain from responding to your second post at this time. With your permission I might even copy your two posts into a new thread once this one conludes where we can devote more time to studying the science and history in depth where we can articulate more freely on this matter. I don’t want you to feel like I’m neglecting to address all of your questions.

Which you are because you know you have no grounds to stand on.

PS- I did forget to answer your first question, “When did GOD create those pre-Adamic species?” The answer is found in Genesis 1:19-20. It was the fourth day of the original creation (4,000 years from the beginning of the first creation) over a period of 1,000 years.

Gen 1:19 says nothing about creating animals and v.20 only talks about creating birds and fishes, not any people. It is to bad your scripture don't even match your words. How can you sleep at night knowing you have given us this kind of Bull?

 

[belever]

-I have another book used in archaeology called: ARCHAEOLOGY OF THE LAND OF
page 39 is a map of all the major dig sites in Israel of cities that are up to 10,000 years old. There are 22 cities. One of them is Jericho [oldest] and another is Shaar Hogolan where I spent two summers digging. People live and built houses in Shaar Hogolan from aout 6400 to 5800 BC long before your so called creation of Adam.

​

The first Canaanite city W of the Jordan to be conquered by the Israelites. (Nu 22:1; Jos 6:1, 24, 25) It is identified with Tell es-Sultan (Tel Yeriho) about 22 km (14 mi) ENE of Jerusalem. Nearby Tulul Abu el-`Alayiq is considered to be the site of first-century Jericho. Lying about 250 m (820 ft) below sea level in the Jordan Valley, Jericho has a subtropical climate. Today oranges, bananas, and figs are cultivated in the area and, as anciently, palms still thrive there.

 

[EtuMalku]

Em hotep belever,
What do your books say is the oldest known civilization?

 

[Lucius7]

Because the very foundation of GOD's plan and purpose for humanity is centered around His Sabbaths, and because the mass of humanity is decieved regarding the Sabbath and it's relevance, I wanted to see what people percieve to be the purpose of the weekly Sabbath and other Sabbaths.

Why did GOD sanctify the Sabbath day and make it Holy?

Why does He command it's observance for all those who desire to be a part of HIS Divine Family?

Why did He give us other Sabbaths to observe in addition to the weekly Sabbath?

Why is observing the Sabbath necessary to actually become an ultimate beneficiary of GODs plan?_________________________________________________

im not realy interested on this subject but i did find this information in my library:





Are

Christians under obligation to keep a weekly sabbath day?​

​

Ex. 31:16, 17: "The sons of Israel must keep the sabbath, so as to carry out the sabbath during their generations. It is a covenant to time indefinite ["a perpetual covenant," RS]. Between me and the sons of Israel it is a sign to time indefinite." (Notice that sabbath observance was a sign between God and Israel; this would not be the case if everyone else were also obligated to keep the Sabbath. The Hebrew word rendered "perpetual" in RS is 'oh·lam´, which basically means a period of time that, from the standpoint of the present, is indefinite or hidden from sight but of long duration. That can mean forever, but not necessarily so. At Numbers 25:13 the same Hebrew word is applied to the priesthood, which later ended, according to Hebrews 7:12.)
Rom. 10:4: "Christ is the end of the Law, so that everyone exercising faith may have righteousness." (Sabbath keeping was a part of that Law. God used Christ to bring that Law to its end. Our having a righteous standing with God depends on faith in Christ, not on keeping a weekly sabbath.) (Also Galatians 4:9-11; Ephesians 2:13-16)​

Col. 2:13-16: "[God] kindly forgave us all our trespasses and blotted out the handwritten document against us, which consisted of decrees and which was in opposition to us . . . Therefore let no man judge you in eating and drinking or in respect of a festival or of an observance of the new moon or of a sabbath." (If a person was under the Mosaic Law and was judged guilty
​

Hey believer. I just read your post and am about to begin compiling an answer. Give me about 30 minutes. I have spent the last 3 hours just gathering together my archaeological and historical records and references of the Hebrew occupation of Egypt from Joseph through the Exodus and it is no easy task. I havesuch a massive collection of data in my library of stuff that it has been no easy task locating all of my records on this subject. I've already done the archaeological study before, but due to everyones desire for references it is going to take me awhile. I am probablly just going to have to get his email and correspond with him privately once I can recompile the evidence and then chronicle it digitally. In the meantime I will cease from that and begin to addres your post.

EtuMalku
​

 

[Lucius7]

Hey believer. I just read your post and am about to begin compiling an answer. Give me about 30 minutes. I have spent the last 3 hours just gathering together my archaeological and historical records and references of the Hebrew occupation of Egypt from Joseph through the Exodus and it is no easy task. I havesuch a massive collection of data in my library of stuff that it has been no easy task locating all of my records on this subject. I've already done the archaeological study before, but due to everyones desire for references it is going to take me awhile. I am probablly just going to have to get his email and correspond with him privately once I can recompile the evidence and then chronicle it digitally. In the meantime I will cease from that and begin to addres your post.


[/left]

still working on it, almost done analysing and answering the first sentence of your post.

 

[belever]

still working on it, almost done analysing and answering the first sentence of your post.

no rush

 

[Lucius7]

still working on it, almost done analysing and answering the first sentence of your post.

Im sorry Believer, I have to go early. I have been dilligently compiling the answers to your questions since my first post to you and am saving my progress in Microsoft Word. I will try to resume tonight or at the earliest possible time tomorrow when I have some time to complete it. I thought about going ahead and posting what I have thus far but cannot yet. I've only actually gotten through most of the first 4 sentences in your post and am already up to 2 pages of text, references and analysis, and yet have not drawn the first part to a close. To pass it own now incomplete could cause you severe harm. I will post the response soon. Please keep checking back from time to time to see if I have answered.

Have a blessed day.

 

[belever]

Em hotep belever,
What do your books say is the oldest known civilization?

Assyriologist Jean Bottéro says: "We are largely formed in all aspects of our culture by the Mesopotamian civilization," adding that it is in ancient Mesopotamia or Babylonia that we find "the oldest perceptible reactions and reflections of mankind on the supernatural, the oldest identifiable religious structure." It is also here that we find the origins of fate.:yes:

 

[Riverwolf]

Read Revelation Ch 18-end of book. It is laid out in more detail.

The 1,000 year millenium will be a time during which Jesus the Christ will take position as King of kings and Lord of lords over his resurrected Elect who will rule according to the Law as kings and priests as Divine Elect, and who will teach and govern the remaining human population who will experience life as it was intended in the beginning in the garden of Eden. Jesus the Christ will restore the entire earth to its origtinal condition (Garden of Eden). After this time all of humanity who was ever concieved who never heard the truth and understood it (those whose time to see was not in this life) will be ressurected and experience the full potential of life in a perfect world prior to Satan being released for a short period to attempt to decieve humanity which has now seen and heard the truth firsthand and are mature enough to choose between GOD and Satan. After this the Great Harvest occurs during which the vast majority of humanity will be transformed into Divine beings with new "physical" bodies, Satan and his demons and all of the wicked dead who rejected the truth are permanately destroyed in a great fire which will consume the present heavens and the earth. GOD then comes down in the New Jerusalem where HE is united with HIS Divine family and then GODs incomprehensible plan for humanity will actually begin.

I've read Revelations before. The New Jerusalem is a ripoff in my opinion. All that trouble just for a city of gold?

Not to mention I don't want to return to Eden.

 

[Apollos]

Lucius –

It is regretable that once again you have taken the easy way out. Your last post to me addressed nothing I pointed out about the “sabbath”. This time you chose only to quote my first paragraph from my first post – which contained none of the scriptures I used to present God’s truth about WHY, HOW, and to WHOM the “sabbath” was given.

Your application of “sabbath truth” ignores to WHOM the sabbath was given. This was Israel.

Your application of “truth” ignores WHY the “sabbath” was given. It was given because Israel had no rest in Egypt.

Your application of “truth” ignores WHERE the “sabbath” was given. This was at Sinai in spite that you falsely claim it was given in Genesis.

In a word, your application of “sabbath truth” CHANGES the reason and purpose for which it was given and observed by Israel.

You do not address the scriptures I have presented because you can not answer them! Instead, you quote every scripture you can find that includes the word “sabbath” in it and attempt to throw out some sort of “sabbath blanket” perhaps thinking if you use the word enough times, that must mean people are supposed to observe the “sabbath” today – when in fact Christians (followers of Christ) are under a different COVENANT ratified with better blood. That blood being the blood of God’s very own Son ! Your lenghty, no context list proves nothing.

The truth is – however you may deny it and ignore – is that the “sabbath” was Given to ISRAEL ONLY, at Sinai, as a “sign”, because Israel had no rest in Egypt.

You remain content to adulterate the very purpose of that “sabbath” as given by God to Israel.

You refuse to show how Gentiles came to be accountable to “sabbath” observance as well as refusing to tell us what meaning the “sabbath” would have to a Gentile.
- - - - - - - -

Lucius - In your post you did not merely state an opinion, you used GODs word out of context and irresponsibly to advance your own doctrine contrary to the written and inspired word of GOD.

I whole-heartedly deny this, and of course, you did not even make the effort to show even ONE example. LOL ! How disingenuous! Now you are attempting to hide behind a long list of scriptures that contain the word “sabbath” - that has no context!

Lucius - Once you have read it I will not entertain anymore of this.

I can’t blame you – and regrets that you have lost the courage of your convictions. When your tactics are being revealed for what they truly are, I wouldn’t want to get “kicked in the pants” anymore either ! (Those tactics being: a.) You pick and choose what you will answer and ignore the rest. b.) You “shovel” out a lot of bulk with no context hoping to cover up your lack of substance in your premise.)

My summary:

The OLD covenant was made with Israel - Exodus 16:29, 31:16,31.

The “sabbath” was a part of the OLD covenant made with/ given to ISRAEL - - - Exodus 16:29, 31:16,31.)

The “sabbath” was given at “Sinai” - Exodus 16, Exodus 20:8 and NEVER observed until this time.

The “sabbath” was a SIGN between God and Israel. See Exodus - 20:12,20, 31:16,31, Deut. 5:15.

Why? Because Israel had no rest in Egypt and God delivered them out of the land - Deut. 5:15.)

Only Israel was held accountable to observe the sabbath !

Why change the very PURPOSE for which the “sabbath” was given ???

Here’s your 3rd opportunity Lucius to point-for-point show if I have taken any scripture out of context, and how it is I – not you – that has acted irresponsibly.

 

[Arlanbb]

LUCIUS7 posted the following statement in #50
I have an even more comprehensive archive of dated and compiled post-Adamic human history to show world sabbatical history and secular history dating back well before the Exodus from Egypt and the formation of the written Hebrew calendar. Before words and scribes mankind kept flawless records of time and dates through astrology, and observance of the seasons and primarily, through counting Sabbaths in 7 day increments for thousands of years. Due to time, I just can’t enter into that topic right now
I don’t want you to feel like I’m neglecting to address all of your questions.

I will reply in red
Everyone who has studied any history knows that about 5000 years ago writing was first used to mark down information so it could be recorded. You have told us that 5985 years ago was Adamic creation and you have evidence that there has been recorded information that proves that there has been 855 X 7 Jublie Sabbaths from that date of 5985 creation down to today.

My question to you is if writing didn't start till only 5000 years ago what and where is your documentation for the 985 years before writing was developed????????
If you don't have documentation for over 900 years of the 855 Jublie Sabbaths then your date of 5985 years for creation is BOGUS. ALL that you have written on this subject in these posts are BOGUS.

PS- I did forget to answer your first question, “When did GOD create those pre-Adamic species?” The answer is found in Genesis 1:19-20. It was the fourth day of the original creation (4,000 years from the beginning of the first creation) over a period of 1,000 years.
You have admitted in figures that pre-Adamic species have been around for up to 4 Million years but now you say that information all happened in just 1000 years [the fouth day of creation] 4 Million years is not 1000 years in my mathmatcs.

When did all these animals and pre-Adamic people die off - during the Genesis Deluge and when did the Genesis deluge happen in your time frame????????