There is a line of debate that uses the 'greater good' as a justification for the existence of evil. What this means is that while god does indeed has the unlimited will to do good and wants to prevent all evil, he can't prevent all evil since that would also prevent the greater good that can be possibly achieved. That means that god must allow evil to the extent that it is necessary to achieve this greater good. In other words, if he were to prevent all evil he would not have the unlimited will to do good.
Woah, hold on. Yes, there are people that hold to the Greater Good rhetoric,
but you have not shown these people to agree with the notion that Suffering is Evil. Typically, these sorts of people define Evil as other things. These people who believe God Maximizes Good, do not believe a Benevolent God would eliminate suffering. In fact,
no one who believes in a benevolent God believes that God would eliminate all suffering entirely. Because to hold that belief would be, as you demonstrate, such an obviously false view.
Show me someone who believes in all three of the Qualities of God in the PoE by
your definitions. Not by
their own definitions. Someone who legitimately believes that their God has the power to end all suffering, and has the utmost desire to end all suffering. Otherwise there is no
purpose to the problem of evil. It is as useful as a logical method disproving the existence of the FSM.
Ah yes. Wikipedia. The location where I looked earlier to try to figure out what you meant by omnibenevolence, and which told me that as good was subjective,
no one agreed what an "All-Good" god would be like...
It seems to me like the question presumes what an all-good God would do... despite the fact no theist would agree with that definition of omnibenevolence. The question's existence has no purpose, no point, no true use or utility.
There's another thread on this forum wherein the OP tried to prove that Islam (specifically worship of Allah) was idol worship. He, like you, was completely correct according to logic and the definitions he was using.
However, his definition of "Idolatry" doesn't match the English definition of the word, nor does it match any Arabic equivalencies of the word (shirk, taghut, statue-worship). Thus, while he is technically correct, of what use is his proof, which only works by his own definitions, and not by the definitions that
any other person uses?? Likewise, unless you can show someone who holds these views, the PoE is utterly
useless.