Why do Christians believe that Jesus is God?

[Genna]

For the grace of God that brings salvation has appeared to all men, teaching us that denying ungodliness and worldly lusts, we should live soberly, righteously, and godly in the present age, looking for the blessed hope and glorious appearing of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ, who gave Himself for us, that he might redeem us from every lawless deed and purify for Himself His own special people, zealous for good works. Speak these things, exhort and rebuke with all authority. Let no one despise you." Tit. 2:11-15

OK, I must say that I don't have anything to say to disprove that Jesus is God in that passage. That is very interesting! You got me!

 

[Bishka]

Please take a look at the links I gave "nutshell" then tell me if it is as simple as many think.

That may not be simple, because people make it complicated.


If you would look at what I said you would understand.

It's quite simple, people just make it compicated.

 

[!Fluffy!]

Why?

Hmm... perhaps because the seeker routine is looking a little disingenuous after all. Perhaps because some of the deliberately provocative questions seem nothing more than baiting or anti-Christian propaganda tarted up as "searching for answers". You may prove me wrong, I'll hang out for a while and see.

because the men and women cannot provide me with the answers I am looking for?

I can't answer this. Not with a straight face anyway.

You feel sad, does not matter to me, I will keep searching for answers.

No, I didn't say I felt sad. I said this thread is 'sad'. Page after page of people trying to communicate sincerely with someone who replies with potshots, one-liners or disrespectful retorts just seems like a waste of time. /IMHO

 

[!Fluffy!]

"The miracles I do in my Father's name speak for me, but you do not believe because you are not my sheep. My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me. I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; no one can snatch them out of my hand. My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all; no one can snatch them out of my Father's hand. I and the Father are one."
From John 10

He went on to say, "This is why I told you that no one can come to me unless the Father has enabled him."
From John 6

Luke 10:21 In that hour Jesus rejoiced in the Spirit and said, “I thank You, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, that You have hidden these things from the wise and prudent and revealed them to babes."

OK, I am not trying to be obstinate, but where in the passages you have cited does it prove that Jesus is God? How does Jesus saying that he and his father are one equate to being God? he is speaking of Unity here, just as this is:

John 17:22 - And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one:

Christ prays that his followers can be "one" in Unity (even as) he and his father are "one," how does this equate to Christ being God? understand m8?

No worries, but you misunderstood the intent of my post. I have not tried to prove Jesus' divinity here (see Dawny's verses, and there are many more).

You can see a theme in these 3 verses... and I quoted them as much for the edification of other Christians here as anyone, btw.

 

[CaptainXeroid]

*** MOD POST ***​

If anyone has questions about the motivations of another poster, feel free to address them OFF LINE. Keep future comments ON TOPIC, because any further personal commentary will result in this thread being locked for good.

Got a question? Feel free to PM me.

 

[may]

If a passage can grammatically be translated in more than one way, what is the correct rendering? One that is in agreement with the rest of the Bible. If a person ignores other portions of the Bible and builds his belief around a favorite rendering of a particular verse, then what he believes really reflects, not the Word of God, but his own ideas and perhaps those of another imperfect human.................. for me it is plain to see that the bible does not teach us that Jesus is God. he is Gods only-begotten son. reasoning on the rest of the bible leads us to an accurate translation of certain verses in the bible

RS​

reads: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God." (KJ, Dy, JB, NAB use similar wording.) However, NW reads: "In the beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god. This one was in the beginning with God."

Which translation of John 1:1, 2 agrees with the context? John 1:18 says: "No one has ever seen God." Verse 14 clearly says that "the Word became flesh and dwelt among us . . . we have beheld his glory." Also, verses 1, 2 say that in the beginning he was "with God." Can one be with someone and at the same time be that person? At John 17:3, Jesus addresses the Father as "the only true God"; so, Jesus as "a god" merely reflects his Father’s divine qualities.—Heb. 1:3.
Is the rendering "a god" consistent with the rules of Greek grammar? Some reference books argue strongly that the Greek text must be translated, "The Word was God." But not all agree. In his article "Qualitative Anarthrous Predicate Nouns: Mark 15:39 and John 1:1," Philip B. Harner said that such clauses as the one in John 1:1, "with an anarthrous predicate preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in meaning. They indicate that the logos has the nature of theos." He suggests: "Perhaps the clause could be translated, ‘the Word had the same nature as God.’" (Journal of Biblical Literature, 1973, pp. 85, 87) Thus, in this text, the fact that the word the·os´ in its second occurrence is without the definite article (ho) and is placed before the verb in the sentence in Greek is significant. Interestingly, translators that insist on rendering John 1:1, "The Word was God," do not hesitate to use the indefinite article (a, an) in their rendering of other passages where a singular anarthrous predicate noun occurs before the verb. Thus at John 6:70, JB and KJ both refer to Judas Iscariot as "a devil," and at John 9:17 they describe Jesus as "a prophet."
John J. McKenzie, S.J., in his Dictionary of the Bible, says: "Jn 1:1 should rigorously be translated ‘the word was with the God [= the Father], and the word was a divine being.’"—(Brackets are his. Published with nihil obstat and imprimatur.) (New York, 1965), p. 317.​

In harmony with the above, AT reads: "the Word was divine"; Mo, "the Logos was divine"; NTIV, "the word was a god." In his German translation Ludwig Thimme expresses it in this way: "God of a sort the Word was." Referring to the Word (who became Jesus Christ) as "a god" is consistent with the use of that term in the rest of the Scriptures. For example, at Psalm 82:1-6 human judges in Israel were referred to as "gods" (Hebrew, ’elo·him´; Greek, the·oi´, at John 10:34) because they were representatives of Jehovah and were to speak his law.

 

[verita]

Our Lord Jesus Christ is God because God Almighty Father mentioned this...
Heb 1:10 And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands:
Heb 1:11 They shall perish; but thou remainest; and they all shall wax old as doth a garment;
Heb 1:12 And as a vesture shalt thou fold them up, and they shall be changed: but thou art the same, and thy years shall not fail.

 

[may]

Our Lord Jesus Christ is God because God Almighty Father mentioned this...
Heb 1:10 And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands:
Heb 1:11 They shall perish; but thou remainest; and they all shall wax old as doth a garment;
Heb 1:12 And as a vesture shalt thou fold them up, and they shall be changed: but thou art the same, and thy years shall not fail.

That is why God, your God, anointed you with [the] oil of exultation more than your partners." 10 And: "You at [the] beginning, O Lord, laid the foundations of the earth itself, and the heavens are [the] works of your hands. 11 note verse 9 yes Jesus has a God , and verse 1 -4
God, who long ago spoke on many occasions and in many ways to our forefathers by means of the prophets, 2 has at the end of these days spoken to us by means of a Son, whom he appointed heir of all things,AND THROUGH WHOM HE MADE THE SYSTEM OF THINGS 3 He is the reflection of [his] glory and the exact representation of his very being, and he sustains all things by the word of his power; and after he had made a purification for our sins he sat down on the right hand of the Majesty in lofty places. 4 So he has become better than the angels, to the extent that he has inherited a name more excellent than theirs.
(1 Corinthians 8:6) there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are, and we through him.............Yes Jehovah is the most high psalm 83;18 and Jesus is the only thing that Jehovah created on his own , Jesus is the only-begotten son but everything else was created through Jesus