No, I didn't. I accused you of being in error for claiming there is no genetic basis for homosexuality at all. You actually went even further and made the even more absurd claim that there's no physiologic basis for homosexuality.
From the paper:
The preponderance of evidence from sexual orientation research strongly suggests that human sexual orientation has biological underpinning and that it is tightly regulated at the molecular level. Although the “gay genes” are yet to be identified, there is little doubt that genetics plays a role in this trait.
Now, if you disagree with this assessment by the researchers who study this for a living, please offer an alternative hypothesis that accounts for all existing evidence wherein genetics play no role whatsoever.
You're confused. Birth order is hypothesized as as epigenetic effect on testosterone levels in utero (which explains why sisters are not correlated), not a genetic effect.
No, I didn't. I accused you of being in error for claiming there is no genetic basis for homosexuality at all. You actually went even further and made the even more absurd claim that there's no physiologic basis for homosexuality.
From the paper:
The preponderance of evidence from sexual orientation research strongly suggests that human sexual orientation has biological underpinning and that it is tightly regulated at the molecular level. Although the “gay genes” are yet to be identified, there is little doubt that genetics plays a role in this trait.
Now, if you disagree with this assessment by the researchers who study this for a living, please offer an alternative hypothesis that accounts for all existing evidence wherein genetics play no role whatsoever.
You're confused. Birth order is hypothesized as as epigenetic effect on testosterone levels in utero (which explains why sisters are not correlated), not a genetic effect.
I never claimed there was NO genetic effect. I said a genetic effect had not been identified. Not the same, at all. Re birth order. I pointed it out as a NON genetic factor in homosexuality, but gave YOU the option of trying to make the case for one. I used this example to rebut your claim that all the evidence points to a genetic factor at play.
"The preponderance "( in law, 51% or more) "of evidence strongly, suggests. The gay genes are yet to be identified." The gay genes ARE NOT identified. "There is little doubt that genetics play a role in this trait ".
How can something be true, when you don't know why it is true ? Is a a strong suggestion equal to a fact ?
Is an opinion a fact ? You appear to be awed by by the fact these people study this stuff professionally. That is irrelevant to me.
I look at, and analyze their words, and what they actually mean.
Here is where we are, based solely on the words of the paper you presented.
We have reasons to believe that genetics plays a role in the existence of homosexuality. Science has not identified the genes involved, nor the specific mechanism of how they influence homosexuality, but many believe this has to be the case.
There are thousands of other possible reasons for the trait. My involvement is not to offer alternative idea's, but rather is to clarify the nature of the evidence.
I simply am making the case that many believe the " homosexuals are born that way, science has proven it" scenario when science has not proven it.
Science speculates on it it based upon evidence that may show it to be true. Truth is not "strongly suggested".
When the mechanisms are clearly identified of whatever may cause homosexuality, and how these work in relation to the mind and body, and there is a consensus in science accepting this as a theory, them one can say it is true.
Some advice. The purpose of this forum is to debate idea's, good, bad, or ugly ideas. When the "YOU" statements begin, it is usually ( though not always) within the context of a subtle, or not so subtle attack on the poster.
Lets ensure that our exchanges don't sink to that level.
Posts must be carefully read to be sure the ideas of the poster are understood.