Freelance_Policeman
Member
Pardon my ignorance, as I've only begun reading the Talmud recently. But my question is, if Moses actually was given two Laws, one written and one oral, why would the rabbis who compiled the Mishna write down what was supposedly commanded by HaShem to be oral? To me it seems like they were more afraid of losing their oral traditions than breaking a commandment of HaShem. Could someone please explain these rabbis' actions?
To clarify on my position regarding the Mishna, I have to read it more before deciding on its authenticity. (Why I have doubts regarding that is a longer story. I don't reject it though; they're just minor concerns that will be the topic of another thread.) As to the Gemara, I don't accept as inerrant or infallible. I don't know if this is how most of Judaism feels about it or not. I'd appreciate some insight into this as well.
To clarify on my position regarding the Mishna, I have to read it more before deciding on its authenticity. (Why I have doubts regarding that is a longer story. I don't reject it though; they're just minor concerns that will be the topic of another thread.) As to the Gemara, I don't accept as inerrant or infallible. I don't know if this is how most of Judaism feels about it or not. I'd appreciate some insight into this as well.