No, it wouldn't. Instead of asking "Have you ever had sex with a man?", you ask "Have you ever received anal intercourse from a man?", for instance.
Well, with all due respect, that seems like a really poor question. I would certainly misinterpret it.
No, I'm not, but that misses the point. The point is that asking a more specific question directed at the root cause, you get a better idea of who is and who isn't infected.
Ok...but when you first argue that the reason not all MSM should be excluded, since the rates of infections differ significantly depending on the manner of intercourse and then cannot show that there is a significant portion (or even one statistically different than zero) of individuals practicing MSM that only "pitch", aren't you contradicting yourself?
Either there is a need for more specific questions, or there isn't. Both premises - that one form of anal sex carries with it a significantly higher risk of infection while the other does not, and that there is a significant portion of individuals who do not practice both types (or just the high-risk type) of anal sex - must be true in order to justify it.
Plus, you would have to make sure that the questions you pose are clear and unambiguous, so that a true differentiation can be made. And with each level of detail that becomes more and more difficult. So, even if I accept both premises to be true, it might not be possible to implement in practice. But, if both premises are true and a practical implementation is possible, then I agree it should be done.
But from what I can tell, that's not at all the argument the gay community is making and is, while worty of consideration, really not the crux of the issue.