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Prophet Muhammad's illiteracy : A Qur'anic perspective

Discussion in 'Qur'anist DIR' started by Union, Aug 22, 2016.

  1. Union

    Union Well-Known Member

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    The first revelation was "Read" and included the statement "God teaches by means of the pen" (96:1-4), and the second revelation was "The Pen" (68:1). The only function of the pen is to write.

    Muslim scholars of the first two centuries after the revelation of the Quran could not understand the Quran's challenge to"produce one like it" (2:23). They had no idea about the Quran's mathematical code (19) and how the challenge in 2:23 is connected to the miraculous mathematical composition of the book. They were also aware that many renowned writers did compose works which were comparable to the Quran from a linguistic point of view. Across time, some scholars did claim the ability to produce a literary work comparable to the Quran. One such claim was made by the well known Egyptian Writer Taha Hussein.

    Moreover, the early followers of Muhammad were constantly being harassed by the Christians and Jews who demanded: If Muhammad was a genuine prophet from God, where are his miracles? All our prophets came with miracles!

    The fabrication of the illiteracy of Muhammad was thus a convenient ploy to ascribe to Muhammad a personal miracle. That way, it would be possible to answer the Christians and Jews, for now Muhammad too would be able to have claim to personal miracles just like the prophets of the "children of Israel"!

    The Quranic word on which they proclaimed Muhammad's illiteracy was the word "ummi." They claimed that this Quranic word, which is spoken about Muhammad in the Quran, means illiterate! However, and contrary to their claims, the use of this word in the Quran consistently denotes the meaning of "gentile," or one who has never received a scripture [see 2:78, 3:20, 3:75, 62:2). The word "ummi" is never used in the Quran to mean "illiterate."

    The following pieces of evidence all confirm that the Prophet was not illiterate.

    Quranic evidence
    :

    1- The Prophet was a successful merchant. The Muslim scholars who fabricated the illiteracy lie forgot that there were no numbers in use during the Prophet's time; the letters of the alphabet were used as numbers at that time.
    As a merchant dealing with numbers every day, the Prophet had to know the alphabet. The Quran tells us that Muhammad wrote down the Quran. In 25:2 we read how Muhammad's rejectors at the time said:

    "These are tales from the past that he wrote down. They are being dictated to him day and night" 25:5

    The rejectors of Muhammad were from the tribe of Quraysh in Mecca from which Muhammad himself came. They knew Muhammad from birth, he was not a stranger. The question here is: Would they accuse Muhammad of writing anything down himself if he could not read and write? Equally, would it be possible to "dictate" to someone who cannot write?

    2- Those who claim that the Prophet was illiterate refer to 29:48 where it is said that the Prophet "did not write it down". However, 29:48 does not refer to writing the Quran, it clearly refers to writing previous scripture. The words in 29:48 tell us that Muhmmad never wrote down the previous scripture. Before the Quran was revealed to the Prophet, he had no knowledge of the previous scripture, this is confirmed in the following Quranic words:

    “You (Muhammad) had no idea about the scripture, nor faith." 42:52

    3- The first command that came to Muhammad at the first revelation was to "Read", the question is: Would Muhammad be asked to read if he cannot read?
    The Hadith followers conveniently fabricated a hadith to counter act this argument. According to this hadith, Muhammad replied to Gabriel "I cannot read"! So Gabriel commanded him once more to "Read", and once again Muhammad gave the same reply, then the rest of the sura was given to him.
    This hadith makes Gabriel look like an idiot asking someone who cannot read to read then insisting on his request when Muhammad keeps insisting he cannot read, and since at the end of this curious exchange the matter was still unresolved and Muhammad was still unable to read (according to the hadith followers) then how did he receive the rest of the revelation?
    The hadith followers say that he did not need to be able to read to receive the revelation! But if that is so, then why did Gabriel ask him to read in the first place?
    Whichever way we look at it, the concept of this hadith is ridiculous to say the least. But that is not all, the Arabic words, which Muhammad is supposed to have said to Gabriel (according to the hadith), are "Ma ana bi qari" which could mean "I cannot read", but can also mean "I am not going to read".

    4- Further to the command in 96:1 to "Read", the command continues to Muhammad in 96:3-4 as follows:

    "Read, and your Lord, Most Generous, teaches by means of the pen."

    How can Muhammad be taught by the PEN if he cannot write?

    All the above evidence clearly confirms that Muhammad was not illiterate. When Muhammad died, he left the complete Quran written down with his own hand in the chronological order of revelation, along with specific instructions as to where to place every verse. The divine instructions recorded by the Prophet were designed to put the Quran together into the final format intended for God's Final scripture to the world (75:17).

    5- The words in the following verse once again indicate that Muhammad was not illiterate but could read and write:

    "You did not recite any book before it (Quran), nor did you write it with your right hand. Otherwise the rejectors would have had doubts." 29:48

    God is speaking to Muhammad and telling him that he did not write any book before the Quran.
    If Muhammad could not read or write, would God tell him that he did not write this or that? It would be obvious that he did not!

    This would be like saying to a person with no legs:
    "You did not walk back home yesterday"!
    Naturally he did not!

    Similarly, telling an illiterate person “you did not write” would be meaningless.
    But we can tell anyone who can read and write, “You did not write so and so.”
     
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  2. Union

    Union Well-Known Member

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    Does the word 'ummi' in the Quran mean illiterate?

    The word 'ummi' has been used in the Quran in a number of verses. The following verse is one example:

    "Those who follow the messenger, the prophet who is 'ummi' ....." 7:157

    Many translations of the Quran have wrongly translated the word 'ummi' to mean illiterate.

    With a quick analysis of various Quranic verses that use the word 'ummi' it can be easily verified that this word does not mean illiterate, and that the correct meaning is gentile or someone who has not received a scripture.

    Let us read the following verse:

    "If they argue with you say, 'I have simply submitted myself to God, I and those who follow me'. You shall proclaim to those who received a Scripture and the ummi's, 'Would you submit?' ........" 3:20

    In this verse God is commanding Muhammad to proclaim to those who have received a Scripture (e.g. the Jews and Christians) as well as the ummi's to submit.

    If we use the wrong interpretation used by most Muslims today of the word 'ummi' so as to mean he who cannot read or write, we would have the following translation:

    "Proclaim to those who received a Scripture and those who cannot read or write to submit"

    It is quite obvious that this is an inaccurate translation for the following reasons:

    1- The opposite of 'those who received a Scripture' is 'those who did not receive a Scripture' and not those who cannot read or write!

    2- If we assume that the word 'ummi' really means illiterate then God is commanding the prophet to call to submission those who received a Scripture and only the illiterate among the rest! Once again, this is very irrational and does not make any sense.

    Also, let us read 62:2:

    "He is the one who sent the ummi's a messenger ........"

    Once again, if we assume that the word 'ummi' means illiterate then that would mean that God has in fact sent Muhammad only to those who cannot read or write!

    It is quite obvious that God would send a messenger with a scripture to those who did not receive one, and not to those who cannot read and write!

    Now let us read the following verses where we are given yet another conclusive evidence that the word 'ummi' does not mean illiterate:

    "Among them are 'ummiyoon' who do not know the scripture, except through hearsay, then assume that they know it.Therefore, woe to those who distort the scripture with their own hands, then say, "This is what God has revealed," seeking a cheap material gain. Woe to them for such distortion, and woe to them for their illicit gains." 2:78-79

    1- We are given in this glorious verse the exact definition of the word 'ummiyoon'. This word, which is the plural of the word 'ummi,' is immediately followed by the words 'who do not know the scripture', which confirms the definition of the word 'ummi'.

    2- In verse 79 God warns the 'ummiyoon' not to write distorted versions of the scripture 'with their own hands'. How can these 'ummiyoon' write distorted versions if they cannot read or write? Once again, this gives us confirmation that'ummiyoon' does not mean illiterate. It means gentiles who have not received any scripture.

    To conclude, the correct meaning of the word 'ummi' in the Quran is a gentile, or the ones who did not receive a scripture.

    Source : Excerpts from www.quran-islam.com
     
  3. W3bcrowf3r

    W3bcrowf3r Active Member

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    Good one, case closed.

    They are just mocking the Messenger and God. They changed the whole system.

    They are those ones who cant cant read and write. Because thank God, a 25 year old can see how many contradictions there are in their fake ahadith system which it took them 300 years to invent. May God protect as many as possible.

    First they were worshipping idols. Now they are worshipping their fabricated system of narrations. Muhammad purified the idolatry. But they went back to it, and went even further by using the name of Muhammad to invent a fabricated religion in hes name.

    We are camel urine drinking donkeys in their eyes who are filling their pockets and being a slave to them. And our wives are being compared with dogs, donkeys and devils.

    Same story happened to the Injeel and Jesus Christ with the trinity.

    Same story happened to the Tora and Moses with their talmud.

    History keeps repeating itself. If the Messenger goes, they already have a fabricated religious system that they can impliment in hes name.
     
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