Not actually. I see any distinction between God, who we cannot see, and Christ, who we can.
1. This is a pastoral epistle. The difference between the two is precisely what Paul is attempting to teach young Pastor Timothy.
I understand what you’re saying, but I don’t see this as referring exclusively to the personage of the Father. This passage simply says “I charge you before God who gives life to all things...” Previously you stated Christ created all things after the Father created him, so I think it would be inconsistent to now imply the Father “gives life to all things” In order to be consistent with your prior exegesis, I would interpret it as "I charge you before God [Jesus Christ] who gives life to all things..."
2. It's actually more consistent to say the Father gave life to all things, which would imply He also gave life to Christ. The Father, together with Christ, gave life to everything else.
where previously you stated it was Christ doing the creating.
3. This is what I actually said :
The “only” here is not referring to one individual but to one God. There is only one God (not multiple Gods, gods, big/junior God, nor God and “a god”). If Paul wanted to convey there were multiple God and/or god combinations, you are correct…he would have used plural rather than singular terms.
4. So we agree that 1 Tim 6:15-16 describes only one of the two Gods. We are in good company as Daniel Wallace agrees that only one "person" [individual] is in view in this construction
There is only ONE
Lord of Lords (singular) and no
Lords of Lords (plural) in scripture. Compare
Deuteronomy 10:17 and
Revelation 17:14. Yahweh states He is “Lord of Lords” whilst Jesus states he is “Lord of Lords”, yet nowhere in scripture do we find the plural term “Lords of Lords”, which is what one would expect to find with two separate Gods.
5. Deu 10 and Rev 17 identify the same YHVH--Christ. However, there is a stark difference many overlook between the phrases King of kings and Lord of lords:
[God the Father]1Ti 6:15 Which in his times he shall shew, who is the blessed and only Potentate, the [The] King G935of kings,[kingships-G936] and [The] Lord G2962 of lords [lordships-G2961]
[Christ] Rev 17:14 These will make war with the Lamb, and the Lamb will overcome them, for He is Lord of lords [g2962] and King of kings [G935]; and those who are with Him are called, chosen, and faithful."
[Christ]Rev 19:16 And he hath on his vesture and on his thigh a name written,KING G935 OF KINGS,[G935] AND LORD G2962 OF LORDS.[G2962]
Notice the different pairs of Greek terms for kings and lords. In Rev 17 and 19, Christ's title denotes a ruler over rulers, but the Father’s title expresses more of one who
places [verb] rulers over other rulers. This is consistent with Jesus' response to James' and John's mother asking Jesus to assign positions of authority to her sons to whom Jesus replied only the Father is able to do so:
Matthew 20:23 Jesus said to them, "You will drink my cup. But I don't have the authority to grant you a seat at my right or left. My Father has already prepared these positions for certain people." (GWN).
The Father is the One who gave Jesus His kingship:
Act 10:42 And He commanded us to preach to the people, and to testify that it is He [Christ] who was ordained by God[The Father] to be Judge of the living and the dead.
Psa 2:6 "Yet I have set My King On My holy hill of Zion."
Note that In Rev 17 and 19 identifying Christ, the plural Greek terms for "Kings" and "Lords" are nouns. In The Father's reference in 1 Tim 6:15, they are verbs. Also worth noting is the definite article "the" is present in the Greek manuscripts to identify the Father, but absent in Rev 17 and 19 in identifying Christ. This is also the only time in the NT the Greek term for kingships [basileuonton] and lordships [kurieuonton] appears with this case ending, further suggesting distinction and exclusivity.
God the Father is the one who decides who will rule and who will be king. That is why He is referred to as the King of the kingships (not kings) and the Lord of the lordships (not lords).
IMO,
1 Timothy 6:13-16 are great Trinitarian verses. There is also some great parallelisms and contrasts to be made here, as these verses distinguish and depict Christ (God)
who in his pre-incarnate state is unapproachable (1 Chronicle 15:2;
2 Samuel 6:7), and Christ incarnate who is quite approachable (
John 1 3:-4;
1 Samuel 2:6;
John 14:6).
6. I don't see how 1 ch 15:2 and 2 Sa 6:7 depict God as unapproachable. David merely overlooked the law that stated the ark was to only be touched and carried by the sons of Kohath or they will die (
Exo 25:12-14;
Num 4:15;7:9). In 2 sa 6:7, the ark was touched by someone other than a son of Kohath and the penalty was carried out. Your interpretation of 1 Ch 15:2 and 2 Sa 6:7 actually contradicts your statement in bold above, as Christ was approachable to the sons of Kohath.
But that's not your only problem. If you insist on 1 Ti 6:15-16 referring to the "person" or God named Christ, that creates a major inconsistency in the text as Christ was not the "only" [monos-G3441] immortal when Paul penned these words. God the Father was also immortal. Furthermore, The "God" in 1 Tim 6:15-16 has not and cannot be seen. Christ was seen by Paul and John in His glorified state (1 Co 9:1; Rev 1:11-20) and obviously by John in his incarnate state.
This leaves only one other possible "God" to fit all of the criteria--The Father--who alone [monos-G3441] cannot die (indicating everyone else "can" die including the created Christ), dwelling in unapproachable light whom no man has seen or can see (Joh 1:18; 6:46; 1 Jo 4:12). And is the "only" [monos-G3441] Ruler (Potentate) who assigns positions of leadership---King of Kingships and Lord of Lordships.
