From more than 100 scholars who worked on the The New International Version (NIV) translation.
About John 7:53-8:11, here's what NIV says :
[The earliest manuscripts and many other ancient witnesses do not have John 7:538:11. A few manuscripts include these verses, wholly or in part, after John 7:36, John 21:25, Luke 21:38 or Luke 24:53.]
John 7:53-8:11 NIV - The earliest manuscripts and many - Bible Gateway
About Luke 22:43-44, here's what NIV says :
Luke 22:44 Many early manuscripts do not have verses 43 and 44.
Luke 22:43-44 NIV - An angel from heaven appeared to him - Bible Gateway
About Mark 16:9-20, here's what NIV says :
[The earliest manuscripts and some other ancient witnesses do not have verses 920.]
Mark 16:9-20 NIV - The earliest manuscripts and some - Bible Gateway
Translational changes regarding crucifixion event
The scenario(Matthew 27) occurs before the crucifixion and
most of the Bible translations read as follows :
17 So when they had gathered, Pilate said to them, Whom do you want me to release for you:
Barabbas, or Jesus who is called Christ?
...
20 Now the chief priests and the elders persuaded the crowd to ask for Barabbas and destroy Jesus. 21 The governor again said to them, Which of the two do you want me to release for you? And they said, Barabbas. 22 Pilate said to them, Then what shall I do with Jesus who is called Christ? They all said, Let him be crucified!
However,
in NIV translation, it reads as follows :
17 So when the crowd had gathered, Pilate asked them, Which one do you want me to release to you:
Jesus Barabbas, or Jesus who is called the Messiah?
...
20 But the chief priests and the elders persuaded the crowd to ask for Barabbas and to have Jesus executed. 21 Which of the two do you want me to release to you? asked the governor. Barabbas, they answered. 22 What shall I do, then, with Jesus who is called the Messiah? Pilate asked.They all answered, Crucify him!
From : [youtube]2m4KW-dysKk[/youtube]
From Jesus to Muhammad: A History of Early Christianity - YouTube (min 19)
By Dr. Jerald F. Dirks, who used to be a Pastor and has a Master of Divinity from Harvard Divinity School.
Points to note:
1. 'Barabbas' in the first translation and 'Jesus Barabbas' in 2nd translation
2. Jesus who is called 'the Christ' in the first translation and the Jesus who is called 'the Messiah' in the 2nd translation.
So what's the difference ? Huge difference. See the NIV translation : Which one do you want me to release to you:
Jesus Barabbas, or Jesus who is called the Messiah? So there were
actually two people named Jesus ?
Jesus Barabbas means - Jesus "son of the father". Barabbas in hebrew is not a name but means 'son of father'. On the other hand, Jesus the Messiah simply means ' Jesus' the anointed one and that word is used for others in the Bible (notice it didn't say Christ) also.
So read the verses from the 2nd translation again and you'll find out that they released 'Jesus the son of the Father' and crucified 'Jesus the anointed one'.
If you don't believe me, take it to one of the Christian Scholars who knows the language and familiar with earlier manuscripts. And the reason, NIV at least uses Jesus Barabbas because it goes to a earlier manuscript for translation.
Bible says it is corrupted
Finally, with all due respect, modern day Bible and biblical scholarship testifies to this very fact itself as is evident from the following statement :
Jeremiah 8:8 (New International Version)
"How can you say, 'We are wise, for we have the law of the LORD,' when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?"
One of the Bible commentaries has to say this about this statement: "They have written falsely, though they had the truth before them.
It is too bold an assertion to say that "the Jews have never falsified the sacred oracles;" they have done it again and again. They have written falsities when they knew they were such." [2]. I am noting 2 other commentaries([3] and [4]) below which agrees with this view.
[2]http://clarke.biblecommenter.com/jeremiah/8.htm
[3]http://gill.biblecommenter.com/jeremiah/8.htm
were the scribes employed in writing out copies of the law, when either it was not heard or read, or however the things it enjoined were not put in practice; or the pen of the scribes was in vain, when employed in writing out false copies of the law, or false glosses and interpretations of it, such as were made by the Scribes and Pharisees in Christ's time, and the fathers before them, by whose traditions the word of God was made of none effect: and so
the Targum,"therefore, lo, in vain the scribe hath made the lying pen to falsify;''that is, the Scriptures.
[4]http://kad.biblecommenter.com/jeremiah/8.htm
The words are not to be limited in their reference to the efforts of the false prophets, who spread their delusive prophecies by means of writings: they refer equally to the work of the priests, whose duty it was to train the
people in the law, and who, by false teaching as to its demands, led the people astray, seduced them from the way of truth, and deceived them as to the future.
Hence,
either Jeremiah 8:8 is true or it might be one of those corrupted/altered statements.
Either way, it is an evidence to the fact that the modern day Bible is not as was revealed by God Almighty but rather has been altered by people. So there's enough proof from Christian scholars about the interpolation and changes done to the original not to mention all the mistakes/contradictions that shows the discrepancies which are man made.
p.s : I mean no offense or disrespect to you or your faith by any of my comments or arguments - those are presented only as evidences to support my arguments.