Skwim
Veteran Member
OMG!Take or retake Philosophy 101. For you to think such an argument is logical is illogical or you don't know how to make a logical argument.
Your premise
"Faith must be based on fact to be real. Faith purely based on fantasy is just fantasy."
Is the existence of the one universal, transcendent, supreme god Ahura Mazda a fact? Some, Zoroastrians, say it is. Is the existence of the one universal transcendent, supreme god Jehovah a fact? Some say it is.
Assuming the qualifier "one" denotes "only possible" We then have
The claim that the only possible universal, transcendent, supreme god is Ahura Mazda, is a fact.
andThe claim that the only possible universal, transcendent, supreme god is Jehovah, is a fact.
HOWEVER,
Both statements cannot be true, and if one is true the other cannot be.
So. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Assuming, for the sake of argument, the only possible universal, transcendent, supreme god is Ahura Mazda is a fact, any faith based on this fact must real. Which means that the claim that the only possible universal, transcendent, supreme god is Jehovah, cannot be a fact, and any faith based on this non-fact cannot be real. Or in your words, "is just fantasy."
Of course, the same kind of a conclusion holds true if on accepts the proposition that the claim that the only possible universal, transcendent, supreme god is Jehovah, is a fact.
The problem then arises as to which of these claims is valid? As I see it, it comes down to establishing that the claimed fact is indeed a fact.
For the Christian, they need no more evidence than their Bible plus whatever else hits them as true, and for the Zoroastrian, it's whatever convinces them (I honestly haven't looked into this to see what this is). So, the "fact" in "Faith must be based on fact to be real." is simply a matter of what evidence one chooses to accept. Such a fact never reaching the level of a universal scientific fact, but one of personal preference. "I prefer to believe the evidence in the Bible." So, should such a fact even merit the designation "fact"? Should X be regarded as a fact simply because you prefer its evidence? No more so than should X be regarded as a fact simply because the Zoroastrian prefers its evidence.
What it comes down to then is, the validity of your "fact" which is grounded in nothing more than personal preference is no more compelling than the validity of a "fact" grounded in nothing more than someone else's personal preference.
Your "fact" never rises to fact's definition as a universal condition that's 'confirmed to such a degree that it would be perverse to withhold provisional assent." Your "fact" aint no fact. It's a conclusion based on personal preference. Just as that of the Zoroastrian.
Hey! This has been fun. Thanks for the opportunity to explain it to everyone. . . . and. . . . to set you straight of course.
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