Machavelle
Member
Why did the Christian God say let us create man in our Image rather then In my Image.
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IN God's Image
- Thread starter Machavelle
- Start date
Tumah
Veteran Member
It wasn't the Christian god, it was the Jewish G-d. Later, the Christians appropriated that statement among the rest for their own use.
The link may be helpful:
https://jewsforjudaism.org/knowledg...ng-of-god-said-qlet-us-make-man-in-our-image/
https://jewsforjudaism.org/knowledg...ng-of-god-said-qlet-us-make-man-in-our-image/
Because Elohim is plural; now modern Jews might say it depends on context to what it implies, i.e. God, gods, angels, etc.
Yet if we go back to some peoples translations of the Sumerian tablets, and other ancient texts, they relate the same stories found in the Bible, yet saying that these were advanced civilizations visiting our planet.
So the plural was implied, as there were multiple beings including YHVH, who helped create here.
Then there is also the question of if the Canaanite belief system, where YHVH was one of the Sons of EL, is what we find traces of within the Bible.
Thus again the plural usage being implied, as YHVH Elohim is one of the sons of EL, just like Yeshua Elohim, and the other angels.
allfoak
Alchemist
We are male and female...with children.
Must be the same for God.
As above so below.
Thana
Lady
Why don't you answer his question then?
Tumah
Veteran Member
It can't be answered as is. It can only be corrected. And I did that.
Thana
Lady
Then I'll rephrase for him.
"Why did God say let us create man in our Image rather then In my Image."
Now can you answer?
Nada
#
The reason it says "in our image" is because God the Almighty was speaking to his first creation in the garden of Eden.Genesis 1:26 This first creation is Jesus Christ.
outhouse
Atheistically
not in this case.
Explain what you mean?
Also didn't realize there were any serious theologians around here.
outhouse
Atheistically
God said nothing, only man write that verse.
FROM A TIME of polytheism, Israelites worshipped a family of gods. Not one god. So we have a plural reference.
outhouse
Atheistically
Here from a time of polytheism, we already know they viewed gods in plural form. ]
So no, its not up for debate.
metis
aged ecumenical anthropologist
There are a great many questions whereas answers that are certain of being correct are hard to come by, and the OP is just one of many. Where so many make a mistake is when they confuse "beliefs" with "answers" as the two are not synonymous terms.Explain what you mean?
Also didn't realize there were any serious theologians around here.
In regards to the OP, there are numerous commentaries on what that might mean, so if I say "I have the answer", I'm only deluding myself.
Tumah
Veteran Member
If its really that important, here's some basic answers.
1. To teach us humility - if G-d can ask for help, so can we. (Rashi) (Or HaChaim)
2. To prevent jealousy among the angels (that Man is more special than angels even though Man is physical), G-d asked them to be a part of the process. (Rashi)
3. The Name Elohim in Judaism is associated with G-d's kingship, so the royal us is being used here. The creation of man is being attached to this Name, because it it relates to the rest of the verse: man being given dominion (like a ruler) over the creatures. (Ibn Ezra) And is used in Isa. 6:8 as well. (Rashbam)
4. As opposed to the land and the water giving forth their respective creatures, the usage here represents G-d's saying, "We of the Heavens" will bring forth man. (Ibn Ezra)
5. The "we" is going back on verse 24 where the earth gave forth animals. Now it is saying We together, the Earth and the Heavens, will create Man. (Nachmanides)
6. Because there are 13 attributes of mercy and in this case, the Name Elohim which represents the attribute of judgement also agreed. (Or HaChaim)
7. After all the animals were created, the angels started to become haughty thinking they were the best thing ever. So 'let us make man' is G-d challenging the angels to try and create Man, to show them that as lofty as they are, they're not G-d. The following verse returns to the obvious, only G-d could actually make man. (Zera Yitzchak)
There are more answers, but they start to get longer more Midrashic or more esoteric and also, I'm not about to pull out a bunch of books just to give you extra answers
outhouse
Atheistically
I have the most plausible answer.
Israelites were polytheistic before king Josiah's reforms in 622BC and after. not up for debate
Genesis was a collection of multiple traditions not finished until after this "reform time" much existed before.
from 1200 BC, Israelite theology changed and evolved all the way to Pharisaic Judaism 200CE ish. not up for debate