Vasiel
The Seeker
the word of God says no homsexual will find the kingdom of God...
yes or no??
Here... allow me to assist you on placing down the passages you are possibly referring too. Since it is clear that you either do not know them yourself, or you just enjoy running this conversation around in circles.
First off there is the creation story in Genesis that many conservative Christians cling to as a foundation for much of their Homophobia. I won't quote it all here since most Christians should know it.
Then in Genesis Chapter 19 there is the story of Sodom and Gomorrah... which after multiple looks at I have come to the conclusion (within my own experience) that Homosexuality was not the Sin of Sodom. But rather over-indulgence, hostility and gang rape.
Then we have the verses in Leviticus, which every right-wing conservative/fundamentalist LOVES using.
[FONT=arial, helvetica]Leviticus 18:22 - "Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination."[/FONT]
As well as:
Leviticus 20:13 - "If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death. Their blood shall be upon them."
Then in the New Testament we have:
1 Corinthians 6:9 - 9Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the Kingdom of God? Be not deceived: Neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor the effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, (21st Century King James Version)
Many Bibles exchange the word effeminate for Homosexual in this verse.
Then we have:
Romans 1:26-27: "For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence [sic] of their error which was meet."
And.
1 Timothy 1:9-10 "Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers, For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine." And that's about it.
So now, feel more than free to jump up and down in excitement. Your Bible says what you want it to say, so you think... however it's always good to go back and look at the Hebrew and Greek translations as well.
Since certain words were translated in a certain way according to the translator. However I wish to reiterate my original point, which is this.... without any substantial evidence outside of your own relative experience, what is written above cannot be considered "Absolute Truth" as you coin it.
There are many, many religious/spiritual scriptures in the world. Using yours as the source of validation for superiority over other texts is ridiculous. Because other religions and texts can be used exactly the same way. No evidence just "I am right, you are wrong... my holy book tells you and me so".
Such accusations would never hold up in court.