So he's quoting an apparently lost source? Interesting answer. Very well.It may also be possible that it is some other source. After all, Paul doesn’t seem to say he is quoting Jeremiah.
Not really, considering the return of Jews to Israel, but we clearly disagree on what that event means, so let's let that point go.What Paul says, comes obvious from what we can see happened.
Very well.I didn’t find Paul saying he is quoting Jeremiah. They are very similar, but if Jeremiah didn’t have the part Paul has, maybe he is quoting some other source. In any case, my point is only to say, by what I know, it is not possible to accuse Paul of lying, because we don’t have enough evidence for it.
Wonder how would that have happened. I mean, didn't Paul live before the destruction of the Temple? I would've expected him, if indeed he was preaching a now-lost source/other version of Jeremiah, to have sent to all of his students and converts the correct version of the Bible, at which point, that would've been the book that would've spread around the Roman Empire.I would say, one possible reason is that there has not remained any other version.
Why would god have allowed such a thing to happen?
But under the umbrella term of what you define as "orders" you still find many many negative commandments (meaning, things one shouldn't do), such as witchcraft, for example. That's not mentioned in the Ten Commandments, and the penalty for that is death, too, just like what you defined as "laws"...and orders are like “do this, because it is good”.