129 we could also say "There is no blessed Holy Trintiy in the NT".
To the contrary: God Father (1), Son (2), and Holy Spirit (3) r not only in the NT;
They're its very structure, source, and pervade it
He gets so hung up on words.
wouldn't call it hang-up. i'd call it "respect"
Not evey word we use to describe theological realities has to come from the bible directly.
The Lord's Table in the NT iz not a "theological reality."
It's a NT commandment and practice and symbol.
In any case, if the gentleman considers Eucharist a theological reality: the word came from the Bible in the sense described in posts 131, 125, and 122
Were does the bible say that?????
Before answering: Did anyone in this thread say the Bible did?
Writer would have to agree with me
i did and do agree w/ that sentence o' yours
or esle he would deny the Holy Trinity ,which is a word not found anywhere in the bible.
To the contrary: the word "Trinity" (though simply meaning "3")
need not be in the Bible, nor even ever used by Christians,
for God the 3-1 to be both True, and in God the 3-1's Scriptures. both NT and O
eucharist is a term we use to describe the communion service.
i don't. Except in discussions often w/ u all.
But in any case, that was a point o' mine to Mr Sojourner, and accordin to the Oxford English dictionary: the term in English haz 2 main definitions in English:
a certain meeting (service); or the bread and wine themselves
It goes back to the first and second centuries from those who were taught by the apostles.
whoever reads the apostles can, and hopefully will, b taught by the apostles
People like Ignatius of antioch who was a disple of the apostle John himself.
likewise, to the extent Writer is: Writer's too
131 God is personal and apprehendable by faith. But that apprehension is an effect, not a cause. It's the result of discerning the presence of Christ already in the Eucharist
To the contrary: God, Jesus Christ, was, and are Persons, and present, and are omnipresent, before, and long before, the Lord established His Supper towards the end of His life, in Matthew 26
-- the apprehension does not cause Christ's presence in the Eucharist.
Christ is not "present" in bread and wine.
He's present, perpetually, in the spirit of all who believe, and who've believed, into Him as God's Only Begotten Son (Jn 3:6, 16).
Thus whether He's present, or experientially present, in a Eucharist meeting, or any meeting, or anytime whatsoever for that matter, to a given person:
iz up to that person and their faith
How can grace be effected through the eating of a meal, where Christ is not present?
By believing into Him or invoking Him.
"Whoever calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved," wrote the prophet Joel and the apostle Paul, and spoke the apostle Peter. Which i've also experienced.
Praise Him!
If the grace is only effecteed through the Christ in us, then why bother to celebrate the meal at all?
Becuz Christ in you said "do this." The same Christ who said so, recorded in the NT
Why can't we just do that by going to a Nascar race?
Celebrate the Lord's Table at a Nascar race? Seems kinda disrepectful or distracted to me. i spose if u want. If u experience the Lord's grace (which is the Lord Himself, Jn 1:14, 17; 2 Tim 4:22; etc), perhaps He'll tell u, or enable u, to go to His Table, or go out preaching Him, instead of spendin your time watchin cars drive in circles