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A puzzle in Aristotle... (frubals for answer)

  • Thread starter angellous_evangellous
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rojse

RF Addict
Perhaps Aristotle considers exposure of deformed children, who would live short, unhappy lives in extreme pain, to be a kindness, although a seemingly cruel one. In older times, when we did not have the medicine that we have now, these deformed children would most likely die, so putting them out of their misery was his attempt at kindness, I would assume.
 
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angellous_evangellous

Guest
Perhaps Aristotle considers exposure of deformed children, who would live short, unhappy lives in extreme pain, to be a kindness, although a seemingly cruel one. In older times, when we did not have the medicine that we have now, these deformed children would most likely die, so putting them out of their misery was his attempt at kindness, I would assume.

I think that Aristotle would consider a deformed baby to be inanimate.
 

Comet

Harvey Wallbanger
My solution is that Aristotle thinks that deformed children that can be exposed don't have sensation and therefore can be naked to the elements, whereas any children in the womb can be aborted (surgically or with poison) before they can feel anything (they couldn't tell the difference between deformed or normal fetuses...).

I find this comment out of line. I also find some of the other comments in this thread out of line.
 

rojse

RF Addict
I find this comment out of line. I also find some of the other comments in this thread out of line.

Angellous is not saying what he thinks, but what he thinks Aristotle thinks in regards to the subject. There is quite a difference.
 

Comet

Harvey Wallbanger
Angellous is not saying what he thinks, but what he thinks Aristotle thinks in regards to the subject. There is quite a difference.

Exactly why it is out of line in my eyes... He speaks for himself and not in the eyes of Aristotle. I didn't mean for my post to be offensive to him, nor you, nor any other. I think Angellous and others have taken Aristotle out of his context as others here tried to put him back in to....
 
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angellous_evangellous

Guest
Exactly why it is out of line in my eyes... He speaks for himself and not in the eyes of Aristotle. I didn't mean for my post to be offensive to him, nor you, nor any other. I think Angellous and others have taken Aristotle out of his context as others here tried to put him back in to....

What do you think is the context? In what way have I taken it "out of context"?
 
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