A great Servant is ‘as good’ as a Son.
A Son, while he is in training, is ‘As Good’ as a Servant.
And, yes, I already knew the term applied to both Servant and Son. It’s irrelevant in this case since another revelation would be:
- ‘And Jesus grew in wisdom and stature, and in favor with God and man.’
God grew in wisdom and stature
and in favour with God and man?
To start, I didn't claim it had any relevancy to the passage. And seeing as Jesus is God made man, then technically your quote of Luke 2:52 would be correct, only in understanding that the Son is performing said acts, not the Father. The human development of Jesus was a process of growing as a human in character and experience. At the end his life as a man was a perfect reflection of his divine Sonship. Do you happen to know what the term 'Ho Theos" applies to?
John 1:1 speaks about the Spirit of God - not Jesus: ‘In the beginning God spoke a
word and it was that
word that created all things. And nothing was created except by that
word‘ And that
word was:
So this
Word created all things? So you are affirming that said
Word is God? Because it is God who created all things. And is it this
Word who is the Son of the Father?
‘I am’ is an ENGLISH PHRASE… a declaration of existence. By itself it also declares an eternal existence. It is NOT A NAME in itself. Where a NAME comes into play is when God spoke of himself as being an eternal selfsame unchanging entity… a constant immutable Being:
- ‘I am that I am’ (I have always been and will always be)
So God made a NAME for Himself (He prior to the encounter with Moses, did not NEED A NAME since he was an ONLY GOD. A name is only required for any entity IF THERE ARE MANY of the same… The name identifies the INDIVIDUAL) God gave himself a name BECAUSE the children of Israel DEMANDED a distinguishment between the MANY PAGAN GODS and the ONE GOD they were to believe in:
- ‘Hear, O Israel, YHWH, your God is your ONLY GOD’
In HEBREW the term, ‘I AM’, is not a name… it is a single word which CARRIES the meaning of ‘I Am’!! No one goes around speaking of themself by the MEANING of their name. Consider the name ‘Peter’ which carries the MEANING of ‘The Rock’ (or ‘The Stone’). What is to be said of these two verses:
- ‘The PETER that followed the children of Israel in the wilderness WAS CHRIST’?
- ‘The PETER that the builders cast away became the cornerPeter’
The verse concerning Jesus saying the WORDS ‘I am’ is simply that…,’I am’, the present participial of the verb, ‘To be’…
Jesus did not, was not, saying:
- ‘Before Abraham, I was’
- ‘Before Abraham, I am’
- ‘Before Abraham, I will be’
The scriptural term, ‘Before’, means ‘Ahead of’, ‘Greater than’, ‘Prior in authority’. Jesus spoke only the truth, the response, to the question the Jews asked him:
- ‘Are you GREATER than … Abraham?’
Jesus answered:
- ‘Greater in authority than Abraham, I am’!
Jesus qualified his claim Bible Hub stating what the Jews all knew:
- ‘Abraham foresaw MY DAY and was greatly pleased!’
… in that God promised Abraham that the great messiah would come from HIS LOINS…
How would the great messiah come from the loins of Abraham if the messiah already existed?
You have a fundamental misunderstanding of the name 'I Am'. 'I Am' is the translation of the Hebrew
ehyeh. In the same passage you quote from Exodus 3:14 'I Am' is used as a noun; "I Am has sent me to you". Jews when reading this passage will NOT say the word "ehyeh" for it is the name of God. Hence, they will say
HaShem or
Adonai.
Now what does interest me is how you already brought Jesus saying "I AM", and that being "I am" as you put it. Because as it is stated in John 8:58-59 "Jesus said to them, 'Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM.' So they picked up stones to throw at him; but Jesus hid and went out of the temple area." Why would the Jews try to stone Jesus? They obviously didn't like what he was saying, but what is it that he said? Was he more than just confirming His position over Abraham?
Jesus did come from the loins of Abraham. You can read it in Matthew that Jesus is a descendent of Abraham. He is literally the son of David and the son of Abraham.
That’s a silly question. Do you mean ‘Are there any attributes that God alone has that are not attributed to Jesus?’
The answer is ‘YES’:
- God alone dwells in un… light
- God is the Ancient of Days
- God always is… Jesus changes many times in his life
- God alone OWNS the Spirit of Holiness. Allowing others to USE the Spirit of Holiness does not make a claim of ownership by those who use it. The Spirit of holiness is THE FATHER’S HOLY SPIRIT which He pours outonto those who love Him:
- ‘In the last days I WILL POUR OUT MY SPIRIT on all peoples…’, says the Lord God (Acts 2:17)
That's not what I asked. However, I do find it quite funny that you try defending claims I haven't brought up (as in your choice of words).
For example, in Revelations 1:8 the term
Alpha and Omega "the beginning and the end" (it is also found in Isaiah) is used to describe the Father (God) whereas in 22:13 its used to describe the Son (Jesus). What my question meant is, there are ways to describe God and there are only things that God can do, according to the OT. Do any of these descriptions or acts apply to him as well?
The early church fathers did not teach a trinity. The trinity came about due to Hellenistic Jews tried to create a doctrine of their own when they found if difficult to convert pagan people and nations. These pagans believed in many Gods and refused to easily be covered to a ‘God’ who did everything ALONE. Hellenised Jews were no strangers to the great Greek mythologies which taught of many Gods sin doc whom orocreated with human women to create Demi-Gods… Part God and part man. It would be far easier to convert these by claiming that the Jesus they were teaching them about was such a deity / even easier if the Son came from THE GODS… Norse mythology speaks of THOR as being such a Demi-deity!!! Egyptians Pharoahs, of course, already claim they were offspring of the gods.
There were many groups who jumped on the ‘z Jesus’ bandwagon and tried and taught a ‘Different Jesus’ just as Jesus Christ told the disciples would happen! Which means you are calling Jesus Christ ‘a liar!!’
St. Ignatius of Antioch in his Epistle to the Ephesians (18) says "For our God, Jesus the Christ, was conceived by Mary, in God’s plan being sprung both from the seed of David and from the Holy Spirit."
Justin Martyr in First Apology 13:5–6 states, "We will prove that we worship him reasonably; for we have learned that he is the Son of the true God himself, that he holds a second place, and the Spirit of prophecy a third. For this they accuse us of madness, saying that we attribute to a crucified man a place second to the unchangeable and eternal God, the Creator of all things; but they are ignorant of the mystery which lies therein."
St. Irenaeus in Against Heresies 1:10:1 "For the Church, although dispersed throughout the whole world even to the ends of the earth, has received from the apostles and from their disciples the faith in one God, the Father Almighty . . . and in one Jesus Christ, the Son of God, who became flesh for our salvation; and in the Holy Spirit." (I would like to point out how he attributes that Jesus became flesh seeing as you believe the Holy Spirit does)
Tertullian, Against Praxeas 2 “We do indeed believe that there is only one God, but we believe that under this dispensation, or, as we say,
oikonomia, there is also a Son of this one only God, his Word, who proceeded from him and through whom all things were made and without whom nothing was made. . . . We believe he was sent down by the Father, in accord with his own promise, the Holy Spirit, the Paraclete, the sanctifier of the faith of those who believe in the Father and the Son, and in the Holy Spirit”
My brother I believe you have a misunderstanding of the Holy Trinity. We do not believe Jesus is a demi-god, but rather he IS God. My username
Homoousios is Greek meaning "of the same substance". This term was officially made doctrine, after the Arian Crisis, at the first Council of Nicea. The later Arians were preaching
homoiousios meaning "of similar substance" (I say later because early Arians were more like Gnostics, kind of accepting that view of Jesus as a demi-god that you mentioned earlier). The Church declared this as heresy. Our Nicene Creed was adopted as a result of this.
A question I would have to ask is, how long after the apostles did these "Hellenistic Jews" begin to corrupt the word of God? Because the two biggest and oldest sects (Catholicism and Orthodoxy) have been preaching the Trinity since the beginning. Now, if you want to say that they're lying about having preached it for that long that's fine, but the actions and writings of the early church fathers would disagree.