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EtuMalku

Abn Iblis ابن إبليس
Consider this:

God Doesn't Exist

  • If God exists, then God is omnipotent, omniscient, and morally perfect.
  • If God is omnipotent, then God has the power to eliminate all evil.
  • If God is omniscient, then God knows when evil exists.
  • If God is morally perfect, then God has the desire to eliminate all evil.
  • Evil exists.
  • If evil exists and God exists, then either God doesn’t have the power to eliminate all evil, or doesn’t know when evil exists or doesn’t have the desire to eliminate all evil.
  • Therefore, God doesn’t exist.
 

Spirit of Light

Be who ever you want
Ad hominem fallacy, and something can be both irrational and a belief or opinion, they're not mutually exclusive after all. Did you read the claim, are you seriously saying you couldn't see it as circular reasoning?
I saying you have over used the fallacy claim, the ad hominem.....you become a joke from all your critique of anyone disagreeing with your non belief.
 

Sheldon

Veteran Member
I saying you have over used the fallacy claim, the ad hominem.....you become a joke from all your critique of anyone disagreeing with your non belief.

Or people should avoid using logical fallacies all the time, rather than sulking, and insulting those who point them out. I notice you use another ad hominem fallacy here, just to reinforce my point, well done.
 

Dan From Smithville

Monsters! Monsters from the id! Forbidden Planet
Staff member
Premium Member
Consider the possibility of a God who knows everything.
Then He knows what God exists. Thus, in order to know everything, you need to know that you exist.
This is part of the knowledge. Part of the Truth. Thus, the possibility of God's existence becomes
a proven fact.

You could reply: "God exists, only not like a Christian's fairytale, but real in the form of a More Developed Civilization of the Universe."

Don't you live in a fairy tale? An electron is both a particle and a wave.

Faith is FAITHfulness. Not blindness. Therefore, God is faithful to Himself. This means that God believes in Himself.

https://www.researchgate.net/publication/357367515_PROOF_OF_JESUS_ON_OMNISCIENCE


Miracle!
Are you familiar with circular logic? You should check it out. It is right up your alley.
 

questfortruth

Well-Known Member
Are you familiar with circular logic? You should check it out. It is right up your alley.

No problem with logic of mine.

Faith doesn't have, or need, proof.

I disagree.

My understanding is that our body isn't the real "me"

It is motive for suicide. But it is sin.

Circular reasoning fallacy, and a pretty idiotic one at that.

I am not idiot.

are you seriously saying you couldn't see it as circular reasoning?

There is no problem there.

I don’t think he can be called omniscient, when he admits that he does not know all.

All good comes from God. It is good not to know something.

If God is omnipotent, then God has the power to eliminate all evil.

There are two gods. The satan and Jesus. The satan has murdered the Jesus, but He is alive now.
The sins of the people fuel the satan.
 

Dan From Smithville

Monsters! Monsters from the id! Forbidden Planet
Staff member
Premium Member
No problem with logic of mine.



I disagree.



It is motive for suicide. But it is sin.



I am not idiot.



There is no problem there.



All good comes from God. It is good not to know something.



There are two gods. The satan and Jesus. The satan has murdered the Jesus, but He is alive now.
The sins of the people fuel the satan.
Absolutely, the epitome of logical reasoning. The most interesting use of logic I have ever encountered. Especially from someone trained in science. What was I thinking?
 

blü 2

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Where does it say there are two Gods? That is unfamiliar to me from when I read the bible.
The early parts of the Tanakh are henotheistic, with various references to the existence of other gods, the best known being "You shall have no other gods before me" (and not, "Ain't no other gods").

Another explicit example is

Judges 11:23 So the Lord, the God of Israel, dispossessed the Amorites from before his people Israel; and are you to take possession of them? 24 Will you not possess what Chemosh your god gives you to possess? And all that the Lord our God has dispossessed before us, we will possess.​

See as well Exodus 15:11, 20:3, Deuteronomy 5:7, Numbers 33:4, Psalms 82:1, 86:8, 95:3, 135:5 and others.

It becomes monotheistic only after the Babylonian captivity.
 

Spirit of Light

Be who ever you want
The early parts of the Tanakh are henotheistic, with various references to the existence of other gods, the best known being "You shall have no other gods before me" (and not, "Ain't no other gods").

Another explicit example is

Judges 11:23 So the Lord, the God of Israel, dispossessed the Amorites from before his people Israel; and are you to take possession of them? 24 Will you not possess what Chemosh your god gives you to possess? And all that the Lord our God has dispossessed before us, we will possess.​

See as well Exodus 15:11, 20:3, Deuteronomy 5:7, Numbers 33:4, Psalms 82:1, 86:8, 95:3, 135:5 and others.

It becomes monotheistic only after the Babylonian captivity.
Tanakh is the old Testament right? Isn't that for Jews and New Testament for Christians?
 

blü 2

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Tanakh is the old Testament right? Isn't that for Jews and New Testament for Christians?
In my considered view, Christian claims to be ─ what's the word? ─ inheritors or owners or successors of the Tanakh / Old Testament are untenable.

Jesus is not a Jewish messiah, for instance, nor is he in any other sense a liberator of the Jews. Rather his followers, starting even back when the gospel of John was written, become the greatest, most persistent, most oppressive, rapacious and murderous antisemites in history.

Equally untenable are Christian claims that the Tanakh / Old Testament contains prophecies of Jesus. Rather, it's plain that large parts of the gospels were written by choosing passages from the Tanakh that appealed to their authors as "prophecies" and moving their Jesuses through invented scenes that "fulfill" those purported "prophecies". They all do it ─ it's an aspect of the midrash tradition ─ but few so baldly as the author of Matthew eg ─

He requires Mary to have been a virgin, very likely because the LXX in translating Isaiah 7:14 had rendered Hebrew 'almah, young woman, as parthenos, virgin; (the mother of Mark's Jesus, for example, is an ordinary Jewish citizen, no annunciations, heralding angels &c, and he doesn't become God's son till God adopts him on his baptism; while the parentage of the Jesuses of Paul and of John is worth no more mention than that they (unlike Mark's Jesus) were descended from David.

The author of Matthew invents the unhistoric 'Taxation Census' story to get Jesus to be born in Bethlehem to “fulfill” Micah 5:2.

He invents the unhistoric 'Massacre of the Innocents' story to get Jesus into Egypt to “fulfill” Hosea 11.1.

He absurdly sits Jesus across a foal and a donkey to ride into Jerusalem "to fulfill prophecy" (Matthew 21:2-5) in Zechariah 9.9.​

And so on.
 

Sheldon

Veteran Member
No problem with logic of mine.

Your claim was a blindingly obvious example of a circular reasoning fallacy, ipso facto it was by definition illogical. Here it si again, for all to see.

Consider the possibility of a God who knows everything. Then He knows what God exists. Thus, in order to know everything, you need to know that you exist. This is part of the knowledge. Part of the Truth. Thus, the possibility of God's existence becomes a proven fact.

I removed the annoying extra line breaks, but that's it verbatim. It is a demonstrably irrational piece of reasoning. You are assuming your conclusion in your premises, more than once.
 
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