• Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:
    • Reply to discussions and create your own threads.
    • Our modern chat room. No add-ons or extensions required, just login and start chatting!
    • Access to private conversations with other members.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!

Was Jesus Gay?

Salvador

RF's Swedenborgian
That, in itself, makes the Bible a worthless tome for the very vast majority of Christians, wouldn't you say? If you can't understand the Bible without knowledge of ancient Hebrew and classical Greek, then almost nobody has any hope of understanding the Bible at all.

Perhaps we could agree the Bible is somewhat meaningless and useless to those who lack a proper understanding of the language that the Bible's original text had been written.
 

Subduction Zone

Veteran Member
Your failure is your inability to post anything even slightly resembling a contradiction. The fact that you can't even see it, is an even bigger failure for you. So you can take your obnoxiousness elsewhere.
We can all see that you do not understand your own Bible. Denial is a defensive trait.
 

amorphous_constellation

Well-Known Member
Later at the crucifixion, Jesus tells his mother, "Woman, here is your son", and to the Beloved Disciple he says, "Here is your mother."[Jn 19:26-27]
26 When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the disciple standing by, whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, Woman, behold thy son!
27 Then saith he to the disciple, Behold thy mother! And from that hour that disciple took her unto his own home.

What are the implications of that notion in particular. If this beloved disciple gains a new mother in Mary, what does that mean? Does it mean that she is now his mother in law possibly? How else would people interpret this idea of making your mother a mother of your relation in the ancient world? And I thought that this disciple didn't have a 'home,' that he would have been a nomad following Christ around.
 

wandering peacefully

Which way to the woods?
Not that there's anything wrong with being gay, but the possibility seems to be entirely ignored when it comes to portraying Jesus. I say, let him out of the closet..
Jesus was most likely gay. Just like a lot of the men then and now. So what? Can't Jesus love others who are gay like he is? Of course he could. And he did and does. Yay Jesus.
 

amorphous_constellation

Well-Known Member
Jesus was a Jew, living under the same Law that the nation of Israel did during his time on earth. That Law expressly forbade homosexuality to the point that it carried the death penalty for those who engaged in it. Jesus died as a perfect, sinless man. So no, he wasn't gay. Jesus' love for his disciples and apostles had nothing to do with romantic feelings. It was a love that good friends have for one another, a close bond. That's it.

You know, a thing is though, wouldn't all these young men be obliged to marry and not go roving about together in ancient Jewish culture, which surely was closer to the Orthodox brand, where there are arranged marriages and you probably don't go camping around the country away from your wife much. Is there a Jewish person here who can clarify this?

The only people who came close to acting in this male-centered manner during that time were probably the Essenes, and weren't they seen as radicals
 

Salvador

RF's Swedenborgian
Jesus was most likely gay. Just like a lot of the men then and now. So what? Can't Jesus love others who are gay like he is? Of course he could. And he did and does. Yay Jesus.

"Jesus loves you" has a different meaning in Mexico.

321ea6481754569f534b66f880114d89.jpg
 

Skwim

Veteran Member
Perhaps we can agree that only those who understand ancient Greek and Hebrew are capable of understanding the precise meaning of the Bible's original text, the "average Joe" is too much of a simpleton and is simply too poorly educated to study the precise meaning of the Bible's original text.
Agreed.

.
 

Skwim

Veteran Member
What are the implications of that notion in particular. If this beloved disciple gains a new mother in Mary, what does that mean? Does it mean that she is now his mother in law possibly? How else would people interpret this idea of making your mother a mother of your relation in the ancient world? And I thought that this disciple didn't have a 'home,' that he would have been a nomad following Christ around.
Perhaps there's an implication in the verses, but I don't see it.

.
 

Polymath257

Think & Care
Staff member
Premium Member
Please be reminded of rule 1:

1. Personal Comments About Members and Staff
Personal attacks and name-calling, whether direct or in the third person, are strictly prohibited on the forums. Critique each other's ideas all you want, but under no circumstances personally attack each other or the staff. Quoting a member's post in a separate/new thread without their permission to challenge or belittle them, or harassing staff members for performing moderation duties, will also be considered a personal attack.
 

Sand Dancer

Crazy Cat Lady
No, the people who wrote the Bible did that. Muslims, likewise, contend that their book is "the word of God, spoken to Mohammed." The Bible doesn't actually make that claim, but so many Christians accept the idea. But in any case, in both books, the imperfections, errors and contradictions make it abundantly clear that these are the imperfect work of mortals like you and me.

These folks somehow think that their unproven beliefs are stone cold fact. It's insidious how conservative religion brainwashes folks.
 
Top