Okay, while I don't agree with your translation, I'll use it. Basically it means someone who concedes to live by the laws of the land, in this case, the Torah. So if he breaks them, he's given a trial and if found guilty, either executed or fined depending on what he did.
In what way did he "agree", and how does that make any difference to the issue (whether this is a law you suport upholding now)?
Okay, while I don't agree with your translation, I'll use it. Basically it means someone who concedes to live by the laws of the land, in this case, the Torah. So if he breaks them, he's given a trial and if found guilty, either executed or fined depending on what he did.
And yet your support comes from extra-biblical sources.
Why is there no penalty for a man not being a virgin?
Why is there no penalty for rape? (there are penalties for having sex with the wrong person, including sex-trhough-rape, but none for the rape itself).
Why, in one example, does God order the murder of the old, the children the babies, and women who are not virgins, but give the firgins as spoils? What right do they have?
Where, in the Bible, is the right of refusal?
The list can go on and on. The OT treats women as chattel; the NT isn't much better. The rights of women in Christianity are very limited, and certainly not on par with those of men. The few you've pointed out do not appear in Christian cannon.
I don't know if they use all of the documents, but they certainly can't read just the Scripture. Moses commands them to do a Kosher slaughter, find me in the scripture where it says what a Kosher slaughter is? It's not, but the Misnah and Gemora have it, so obviously they have to use parts of them. Or atleast I would hope they use them since reading the bible without the oral law is stupid.
You seem to be proving my point. Christians don't eat Kosher.
Obviously, this does make follwing the OT law a problem for Christians (which I believe I alluded to early in this thread; Christians cherry-pick which laws they want to follow).
Well, in my opinion, it can mean convert or someone who subjects themselves knowingly to the laws. Either way in my opinion, he knows what he is doing and choosing it.
Strong disagrees, as do the translators of every version of the Bible I've seen.
Let me throw another wrench at you; the passage explicitly applies to slaves (who don't choose much of anything).
Do they enact the other laws?
They want to, though hypocrtitially, few want to enact this one. As mentioned before, they cherry-pick.
No to the first question since the courts can't be convened. The romans killed off the direct line from Moses. So do you think we should ignore one law stating that the death penalty is to ONLY be given by the proper court?? In this case 23 Ordained Rabbi's.
The Bbile makes no such requirement. Here's a particularly poingient example as it covers everything from accusation to stoning, Deut 21:18-20
"If any man has a stubborn and rebellious son who will not obey his father or his mother, and when they chastise him, he will not even listen to them, then his father and mother shall seize him, and bring him out to the elders of his city at the gateway of his hometown. "They shall say to the elders of his city, 'This son of ours is stubborn and rebellious, he will not obey us, he is a glutton and a drunkard.' "Then all the men of his city shall stone him to death; so you shall remove the evil from your midst, and all Israel will hear {of it} and fear.
He's accused in front of "the elders of his city" (perhaps these are neccessairily the judges you are referring to, if so, please support); and stoned by the people. Do you have a
Biblical cite that says "none of these punishments should be ubheld if there are not judges descended from Moses"?