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WHERE IS THE SCRIPTURE THAT SAYS GOD'S 4th COMMANDMENT IS ABOLISHED?

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
metis said: The NT is not the only scripture that there is, and please see my post above that you have avoided trying to answer.
My response..
No one said the new testament is the only scripture there is. Do not be untruthful I did answer you question if you believe I did not address my post telling me why how my post does not answer your question. If you cannot why make things up?
Your response here..
I was in no way being "untruthful", so point out where I supposedly did, or I'll just have to believe that maybe you should head your own warning. I never stated nor implied that you said that the NT was the only set of scriptures. I have many faults, but lying isn't by-and-large one of them.
You were trying to claim I did not answer your earlier questions in post # 1834. Maybe you have a misunderstanding and are mixing up different sections of my post. It was being untruthful that I did not attempt to answer your question. I even went further and asked you for clarification in case I did not understand exactly what you were asking in your question.
 

metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
You do know that Gods people had the laws of atonement prior to Mt Sinai right?
Tell which religious laws existed 5000+ years ago? And what about those people even today who never even heard of Jesus as I've posted several times before? All you are doing is evading the questions, so there's nowhere else to go on this as your position and excuses are illogical and judgmental.

Anyhow, enjoy what's left of the weekend.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
Tell which religious laws existed 5000+ years ago? And what about those people even today who never even heard of Jesus as I've posted several times before? All you are doing is evading the questions, so there's nowhere else to go on this as your position and excuses are illogical and judgmental.

Anyhow, enjoy what's left of the weekend.
Before the written Word of God there was the spoken Words of God. See Genesis 26:5
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
All you are doing is evading the questions, so there's nowhere else to go on this as your position and excuses are illogical and judgmental.
Well that is not truthful at all. You have been shown through the scriptures that before the written words of God (scripture) that Gods people were given His laws before Mt Sinai by the spoken words of God in Genesis 26:5. Therefore you are deflecting and there's nowhere else to go on this as your position and excuses are illogical and judgmental.
 
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metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
Well that is not truthful at all. You have been shown through the scriptures that before the written words of God (scripture) that Gods people were given His laws before Mt Sinai by the spoken words of God in Genesis 26:5. Therefore you are deflecting and there's nowhere else to go on this as your position and excuses are illogical and judgmental.
I think we're done with this as your positions on this really don't make any sense whatsoever because they're based on a small group of people when Jesus lived, and in one small location in the world several millions of years after humans, as separate from the rest of the ape line, emerged. This is the reality-- thus not speculation.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
And who were addressed to-- everyone on the world back then?
It was addressed to those who believed and obeyed God and His Words. Of course it was not for unbelievers who choose not to believe and obey what Gods Word says. Your question asked for law that time period and there it is (Genesis 26:5). Are you going to make your question about something else now?
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
I think we're done with this as your positions on this really don't make any sense whatsoever because they're based on a small group of people when Jesus lived, and in one small location in the world several millions of years after humans, as separate from the rest of the ape line, emerged. This is the reality-- thus not speculation.
Well that is not truthful at all. You have been shown through the scriptures that before the written words of God (scripture) that Gods people were given His laws before Mt Sinai by the spoken words of God in Genesis 26:5. Therefore you are deflecting and there's nowhere else to go on this as your position and excuses are illogical and judgmental. Sorry I do not believe in your timeline.
 

metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
It was addressed to those who believed and obeyed God and His Words. Of course it was not for unbelievers who choose not to believe and obey what Gods Word says. Your question asked for law that time period and there it is (Genesis 26:5). Are you going to make your question about something else now?
As you have done several times now, you simply don't answer the question that was asked, instead diverting it into something else. Obviously continuing this discussion with you is worthless.
 

metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
Well that is not truthful at all. You have been shown through the scriptures that before the written words of God (scripture) that Gods people were given His laws before Mt Sinai by the spoken words of God in Genesis 26:5. Therefore you are deflecting and there's nowhere else to go on this as your position and excuses are illogical and judgmental. Sorry I do not believe in your timeline.
See above, and it is not I who's not being truthful.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
As you have done several times now, you simply don't answer the question that was asked, instead diverting it into something else. Obviously continuing this discussion with you is worthless.
Not really. You get your questions answered with scripture then it seems to upset you.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
See above, and it is not I who's not being truthful.
See above. Yes it was you who was not being truthful. Your question was answered showing Gods law existed outside of Mt Sinai under Abraham in Genesis 26:5 and before the written words of God there was the spoken Word of God.
 

IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
See above. Yes it was you who was not being truthful. Your question was answered showing Gods law existed outside of Mt Sinai under Abraham in Genesis 26:5 and before the written words of God there was the spoken Word of God.
Again, yo have zero evidence that the Law that Abraham followed was identical to the Law at Sinai. You basically are simply assuming.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
Again, yo have zero evidence that the Law that Abraham followed was identical to the Law at Sinai. You basically are simply assuming.
No one said that Abraham followed laws identical to the laws given to Israel as a nation so do not pretend that they have. How can Abraham bring a sin offering to a Levitical Priest in an earthly Temple and keep annual Feast days when there was not Priest and Temple? That does not mean that Abraham did not know Gods laws or right and wrong and what sin is when broken and did not know Gods laws of animal sacrifices and sin offerings. Both can be shown and demonstrated in the scriptures.
 

IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
No one said that Abraham followed laws identical to the laws given to Israel as a nation so do not pretend that they have.
Glad to hear that we are agreeing.
How can Abraham bring a sin offering to a Levitical Priest in an earthly Temple and keep annual Feast days when there was not Priest and Temple?
He obviously couldn't, since there were no Levitical priests or temple.
That does not mean that Abraham did not know Gods laws or right and wrong and what sin is when broken and did not know Gods laws of animal sacrifices and sin offerings. Both can be shown and demonstrated in the scriptures.
This originally began as a discussion about the Sabbath. When I stated that there was no prohibition for working on the Sabbath until the manna incident, the response was "Abraham kept the laws." Now, if you want to support me on that, that's fantastic. If you want to claim that Abraham kept the sabbath, then we are going to continue disagreeing, because you cannot point to anywhere in Genesis where anyone is instructed not to work on the seventh day.

Moral law falls under the description of "Love your neighbor as yourself." It is designed to prevent harm to our fellow human beings. Keeping the Sabbath is NOT moral law. Keeping the sabbath is an expression of love for God, and there are many ways to show love of God -- it is not one comprehensive list. One person may come from a culture where loving God means singing in a state of ecstacy with their palms raised high. Another person may show their love for God by spending hours studying sacred texts. For Jews, one of the ways we show our love of God is by keeping the Sabbath. But it is not a universal law.

If you want to keep the Sabbath, if it brings you closer to God, I say go for it. But it is not a requirement, not for you, and not for any of the nations of the world. It is NOT the same thing as refraining from theft, murder and adultery. It is NOT a universal law.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
Glad to hear that we are agreeing. He obviously couldn't, since there were no Levitical priests or temple.
That was my point right there but that does not mean that Abraham did not know Gods laws or right and wrong and what sin is when broken and did not know Gods laws of animal sacrifices and sin offerings. Both can be shown and demonstrated in the scriptures.
This originally began as a discussion about the Sabbath. When I stated that there was no prohibition for working on the Sabbath until the manna incident, the response was "Abraham kept the laws." Now, if you want to support me on that, that's fantastic. If you want to claim that Abraham kept the sabbath, then we are going to continue disagreeing, because you cannot point to anywhere in Genesis where anyone is instructed not to work on the seventh day.
Well this is correct for the nation of Israel that has been in bondage to the Egyptians. That does not mean Gods people prior to Sinai did not know Gods laws and word through the direct spoken words of God. That is what Genesis 26:5 proves and other scriptures to do with sin and atonement for sin through animal sacrifices pre Israel in Genesis.
Moral law falls under the description of "Love your neighbor as yourself." It is designed to prevent harm to our fellow human beings. Keeping the Sabbath is NOT moral law. Keeping the sabbath is an expression of love for God, and there are many ways to show love of God
Not exactly no. Moral law comes under the description of the two great commandments of love. The greatest of these two commandments is our duty of love firstly to God "Thou shalt love the Lord your God with all your heart, and with all your soul, and with all your mind." (Deuteronomy 6:5 and Matthew 22:37) followed by our duty of love to our fellow man; "Thou shalt love your neighbor as your self." (Leviticus 19:18 and Matthew 22:39). On these two great commandments of love to God and man hang all the law and the prophets (Matthew 22:40). Obedience to Gods first four commandments of the 10 commandments are how we are to express our love to God and obedience to the next 6 commandments of Gods 10 commandments are how we are to express our love to our fellow man. Therefore the Sabbath commandment just like any of the first four of Gods 10 commandments are all moral laws of our duty of love to God and breaking anyone of them is sin in Gods eyes. According to the scriptures the purpose of Gods law is to give us the knowledge of GOOD (moral right doing when obeyed) and EVIL (moral wrong doing when disobeyed); SIN (moral wrong doing when disobeyed) and RIGHTEOUSNESS (moral right doing when obeyed) *see Romans 3:20; Romans 7:7; 1 John 3:4 and Psalms 119:172. Therefore the Sabbath is very much a moral law and shows us our duty of love to God and breaking it is sin in Gods eyes. 1 John 3:4 comp. James 2:10-11.
 

IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
\Moral law comes under the description of the two great commandments of love. The greatest of these two commandments is our duty of love firstly to God "Thou shalt love the Lord your God with all your heart, and with all your soul, and with all your mind." (Deuteronomy 6:5 and Matthew 22:37) followed by our duty of love to our fellow man; "Thou shalt love your neighbor as your self." (Leviticus 19:18 and Matthew 22:39).
No I absolutely disagree. Moral law refers only to the second one, loving your neighbor as yourself. Moral law is desigend to prevent us from harming each other. Loving God, while very important, is just not the same thing.

I think we are going to have to simply disagree on this.
 

3rdAngel

Well-Known Member
Not exactly no. Moral law comes under the description of the two great commandments of love. The greatest of these two commandments is our duty of love firstly to God "Thou shalt love the Lord your God with all your heart, and with all your soul, and with all your mind." (Deuteronomy 6:5 and Matthew 22:37) followed by our duty of love to our fellow man; "Thou shalt love your neighbor as your self." (Leviticus 19:18 and Matthew 22:39). On these two great commandments of love to God and man hang all the law and the prophets (Matthew 22:40). Obedience to Gods first four commandments of the 10 commandments are how we are to express our love to God and obedience to the next 6 commandments of Gods 10 commandments are how we are to express our love to our fellow man. Therefore the Sabbath commandment just like any of the first four of Gods 10 commandments are all moral laws of our duty of love to God and breaking anyone of them is sin in Gods eyes. According to the scriptures the purpose of Gods law is to give us the knowledge of GOOD (moral right doing when obeyed) and EVIL (moral wrong doing when disobeyed); SIN (moral wrong doing when disobeyed) and RIGHTEOUSNESS (moral right doing when obeyed) *see Romans 3:20; Romans 7:7; 1 John 3:4 and Psalms 119:172. Therefore the Sabbath is very much a moral law and shows us our duty of love to God and breaking it is sin in Gods eyes. 1 John 3:4 comp. James 2:10-11.
Your response here..
No I absolutely disagree. Moral law refers only to the second one, loving your neighbor as yourself. Moral law is desigend to prevent us from harming each other. Loving God, while very important, is just not the same thing. I think we are going to have to simply disagree on this.
I do not really care for your opinion. That is why I post scripture that is in disagreement with you. Moral laws are laws of right doing which are in context of our duty of love to God and man which are the two great commandments according to the scripture on which all the law and the prophets hang. Are you really going to try and argue that the first four commandments of Gods 10 commandments which tell is our duty of love to God are not moral laws? Think your argument through before posting.
 
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