• Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:
    • Reply to discussions and create your own threads.
    • Our modern chat room. No add-ons or extensions required, just login and start chatting!
    • Access to private conversations with other members.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!

When was "the Messiah" first mentioned in scripture?


הרב יונה בן זכריה
Let's try and break this down for you:
1. You asked me for scripture. I provided it.
2. you then, instead of dealing with what I posted, you then posted something irrelevant of your own
3. You posted a poor translation of a poor translation and I pointed out your error
4. You then changed what you wanted to talk about

Now you say I can't find scripture to state who was wounded -- but you never asked me for that. If you want that, I'll have to point out some details you seem not to know:

A. The speaker (the first person of "our transgressions") is non-Jewish kings. Start with the phrase

Kings shall be silenced because of him,
For they shall see what has not been told them,
Shall behold what they never have heard.”​

Which then continues directly into

“Who can believe what we have heard?
Upon whom has the arm of the LORD--a been revealed?​

B. The speaker, the non-Jewish king who speaks in the first person talks about how the nation of Israel (the servant, explicitly equated repeatedly with the nation of Israel)
Isaiah 41:8

But, you Israel, are My servant; Jacob, whom I have chosen; seed of Abraham, My friend.
suffered (was wounded) because of the king's (and the non-Jewish people's) transgressions but now has been raised up. This is all explicit in the text. It isn't talking about God being punished for anyone's actions. That's silly. I'm sure you won't understand this because it requires actually reading the text, but whatever.

Just take a look at what the text actually says (note the first person, the kings, speaking of the one who suffers via God because of the kings' sins):

We accounted him plagued,
Smitten and afflicted by God;​

But he was wounded because of our sins,
Crushed because of our iniquities.​

63:5 is part of the prophet's explanation of what will happen when God defeats Edom.

Here is a better translation:

So My own arm wrought the triumph,
And My own rage was My aid.

Are you now making the claim that when the text uses human-anatomical or other physical references to God, they are meant to be literal? So the finger of God is a literal finger? His "back" is actually a "back"? If that's your position, then go worship a human figure.

Echad means one. If you think God is in flesh, then you have fun with your idolatry and man-worship.

You clearly are unable to read the bible in Hebrew and struggle with the English and have been led around by others' mistakes. So, so sad.

You still have no clue that the text says something very different from what you erroneous websites insist. Sad that you can't think for yourself and see any of this. Good luck to you.