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Was Paul a closeted, self-loathing gay man hiding in an anti-gay society?

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
Irrelevant. What was the point? the point was 'does it happen?'. The point has been proven: YES. And you even agreed.

It follows the pattern. Therefore, YES, possible.

Don't give a dang about your appeal to numbers
Then why did you bring up the numbers in the first place? No, what you're saying doesn't follow the pattern. The pattern is actually that most people who speak out against homosexuals are not homosexuals.
Or read in more than you'd like
Or you read more into it then there was there. Same like your previous argument that supposedly large numbers of people who spoke out against homosexuality are homosexuals. That was simply false. And I find it funny that you are not dismissing the numbers, even though you brought it up.
Or it was the first, and the rest are simply not reported since reporting them specifically MAKES NO SENSE
Why wouldn't it make sense? Paul said that people didn't have to be circumcised. If he went against that, it certainly makes sense to mention it.
Rrrrright, cuz that's really going to be put in an anti-gay screed. That makes perfect sense :facepalm:
Rest is just more nonsense
It's only nonsense because you have a major bias here, and want Paul to be gay for whatever reason. Your arguments fail, they are uninformed, and you have to resort to personal attacks from time to time. Seriously, you have nothing.
 

LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
It's your fantasy that Im biased. I commenced no ad homs at you nor anyone else, until they were directed at me, first; this displays only the weak desperation in an opponent.

Not desperation. Irritation. I couldn't care less if Paul was gay. Deliberate distortions of the truth, however, I do care about.

Since there is no second procedure listed anywhere, the default proposal that the same procedure is used, is totally rational.

1) There is no indication that this was the "default proposal." The document clearly states that it is a procedure done only during a few specific days within a child's first two weeks. To call that the "default" anything is to cherry-pick what you want from the document and distort it.
2) It is not at all rational to make arguments based on an absence of evidence. We know that people all over the world treat babies differently than adults. Culturally acceptable behavior around infants is certainly not necessarily culturally acceptable behavior around adults. You plucked one description which specifically prohibits this procedure for children after 12 days and then appiled it to an adult.
3) You also picked it out of a text written 400 years after Paul. There is no reason whatsoever to suppose the practice was the same. Neusner in particular (but hardly alone) began making it clear that later rabbinic texts could not readily projected onto first century judaism
4) The procedure you describe is MEDICAL. You claimed it wasn't by citing herodotus, but herodotus says the exact opposite.

Nothing in your argument is a rational, unbiased, or historical.

The fact it is mentioned, in a document that is meant to clarify earlier rules, implies it exists in the earlier rules [otherwise, there would be no clarification]. The law requiring specific timetable, applies to infants, for reasons such as that which I listed; if an adult must be circumcised, tradition would probably be applied. The total absence of even the slightest hint of a different procedure does not in any way whatsoever support you. Your assertion there is some phantom adult-only procedure, is unsupported.
"The Talmud explains that the wound is suctioned in order to promote healing, but does not explain how the suctioning is to be performed; medieval Jewish authorities unanimously assume that the suctioning is to be done by the cirumciser by mouth, and the procedure was thus performed until the middle of the 19th century...but in the talmudic period the blood that was suctioned was not yet ideologically significant, nor was its treatment the subject of custom." From Professor Cohen's Why Aren't Jewish Women Circumcised (University of California Press, 2005).

Whether suction was performed by a sponge or one's mouth, or AT ALL in 1st century palestine isn't clear. The Talmud (c. 500 CE) discusses the extraction/suction of blood, but not by mouth. Only in medieval Judaism was this believed to be the proper method. So you're reading a medieval interpretation of a text from c. 500 CE which explicitly states it shouldn't be performed after the age of 12 days into a scene from Acts, and then conluding that there is any indication whatsoever that Paul used this method or that it ever had homosexual implications.

There's nothing "rational" about that.
 
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Heathen Hammer

Nope, you're still wrong
Then why did you bring up the numbers in the first place? No, what you're saying doesn't follow the pattern.
Yes, it does

I brought up the numbers, as I clearly said, because the numbers show it isn't isolated; it happens 'a lot'. And, also, I bring them up because your knee jerk response on any subject bringing to light to bad habits of Christians is very consistent: 'Because it isn't the majority of all Christians, but only a miniscule minority, it's not Christians doing it etc'. You have been observed to use this bad reasoning a lot in your apologetics and I was simply heading it off.
Or you read more into it then there was there. Same like your previous argument that supposedly large numbers of people who spoke out against homosexuality are homosexuals. That was simply false.
Well, there are large numbers; you simply want to deny this with your tired, identical argument that since it isn't a majority, it doesn't happen, or that a specific case, isn't the case.

And I find it funny that you are not dismissing the numbers, even though you brought it up.
The numbers simply show that it DOES happen; are you not reading what I'm typing?
Why wouldn't it make sense? Paul said that people didn't have to be circumcised. If he went against that, it certainly makes sense to mention it.
You are purposefully obtuse. It doesn't make sense because Paul would then be labeled a hypocrite [by the people during his time who looked up to him as a moral leader of the cult] and his power would disappear. Please.
Powerful men, hiding their sexual predilections while simultaneously speaking loudly against the same predilections in others? Why that never happens!
http://hypervocal.com/news/2012/10-conservatives-cruising-for-gay-sex-at-cpac/


It's only nonsense because you have a major bias here, and want Paul to be gay for whatever reason.
If you can't identify my reason then you cannot claim I am biased; that's just you being afraid that Paul might be gay.
 
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Heathen Hammer

Nope, you're still wrong
Not desperation. Irritation. I couldn't care less if Paul was gay. Deliberate distortions of the truth, however, I do care about.
It's not a distortion, it is a conclusion you simply don't like, based on a variety of truths present both in the text and in general human nature. The evidence, sketchy as it is, is inconclusive; you yourself have been forced to admit this or use it as reasoning on a few occasions. Thus they are open to interpretation. This is simply an interpretation you don't like.

1) There is no indication that this was the "default proposal." The document clearly states that it is a procedure done only during a few specific days within a child's first two weeks. To call that the "default" anything is to cherry-pick what you want from the document and distort it.
Your cherry pick that it is ONLY for children has been debunked.

2) It is not at all rational to make arguments based on an absence of evidence. We know that people all over the world treat babies differently than adults. Culturally acceptable behavior around infants is certainly not necessarily culturally acceptable behavior around adults. You plucked one description which specifically prohibits this procedure for children after 12 days and then appiled it to an adult.
And you presume there is a separate procedure, simply because your modern pretext considers the idea of mouth suction on an adult, somehow distasteful [no pun intended] and so there MUST be another procedure. Yet, there isn't one in the texts. Not a single hint. All you people claiming I am biased sure seem to have your own personal biases about this idea stemming from what appears a rather puerile personal revulsion.

3) You also picked it out of a text written 400 years after Paul. There is no reason whatsoever to suppose the practice was the same.
Except the general obvious adherence to tradition by the Hebrews.

Neusner in particular (but hardly alone) began making it clear that later rabbinic texts could not readily projected onto first century judaism
No idea who that is, anecdotal citation claiming some generality that may or may not apply. Perhaps that wows 'em at the pub because they don't expect links in chat bubbles, but...
4) The procedure you describe is MEDICAL. You claimed it wasn't by citing herodotus, but herodotus says the exact opposite.
My error in one case, following a citation from Wiki, does not invalidate my main point, try again
Nothing in your argument is a rational, unbiased, or historical.
I demand you identify and specify the bias or cease libeling me, thank you
"The Talmud explains that the wound is suctioned in order to promote healing, but does not explain how the suctioning is to be performed; medieval Jewish authorities unanimously assume that the suctioning is to be done by the cirumciser by mouth, and the procedure was thus performed until the middle of the 19th century...but in the talmudic period the blood that was suctioned was not yet ideologically significant, nor was its treatment the subject of custom." From Professor Cohen's Why Aren't Jewish Women Circumcised (University of California Press, 2005).
Quick question: if medieval Hebrew scholars presumed the mouth suction was TRADITIONAL, they would then follow it, because tradition was important to them, true or false?
If 'true' then your demand that it is unlikely the process was traditional 200, or 400 years previously is obviously too weak to stand further. Because 600 years later it was suuuure important to them, that the tradition be observed, and followed. Also.... you're quoting a book on female circumcision, what is the context of that citation?? In addition I would add that your quote, simply states that the blood was not itself treated in any customary way. In other words it was not 'sacred' blood so, this does not indicate it would be treated with any reverence. If anything that makes my point a bit more likely then or is at least a neutral fact vs my point, since the blood's being taken into the mouth wouldn't mean anything at all. it could be treated with or discarded in any manner.
Whether suction was performed by a sponge or one's mouth, or AT ALL in 1st century palestine isn't clear.
Not definitive, but evidence points that it WAS, because you still have zero evidence for your phantom homophobic 2nd procedure.
The Talmud (c. 500 CE) discusses the extraction/suction of blood, but not by mouth. Only in medieval Judaism was this believed to be the proper method. So you're reading a medieval interpretation of a text from c. 500 CE which explicitly states it shouldn't be performed after the age of 12 days into a scene from Acts, and then concluding that there is any indication whatsoever that Paul used this method or that it ever had homosexual implications.
Watch your wording: it does NOT state it is forbidden. Your tired little argument about the age restriction is obviously bogus and I simply won't consider it present again, no matter how often you repeat it. The date restrictions were for infants, but the procedure still had to be performed post-natal and this is clearly NOT the reason why the dates immediately after birth are cited. And again, the Mishnah is still 200 years. You seem to need to keep pushing the dates of mention, farther and farther into the future to bolster a sagging point.
 
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LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Your cherry pick that it is ONLY for children has been debunked.

Right. Because your knowledge of rabbinic scholarship and the judaism of first century palestine comes from...oh wait. If you had really any familiarity at all with academic texts you'd know that decades ago (and since) a mass of schoalrship has shown that reading rabbinic literature back into the first century is incredibly problematic if it is possbile at all.

But you didn't stop there. No, in your rational unbiased approach you went to a text written in four centuries after Paul which doesn't specify what instrument (mouth, sponge, etc.) was used to suction blood, read in a medieval interpretation centuries after that, and then concluded that Paul put Timothy's penis in his mouth and made him his partner.

The convoluted assumptions, twists, and illogical leaps involved in your conclusion are mind boggling.

And you presume there is a separate procedure, simply because your modern pretext considers the idea of mouth suction on an adult
No, what I consider is
1) The validity of reading any Talmudic procedures into 1st century judaism
2) The medieval interpretation that the talmud referred to suction via the mouth
3) The only thing you are relying on is a text written centuries later which SPECIFIES THAT IT APPLIES ONLY TO INFANTS and then you assume that this is somehow the "default." You have no reason to assume it. There's no text from even the talmudic period, let alone earlier, you can point to which demonstrates that it is. You simply assume

You entire argument is just assumptions built on more assumptions combined with a lack of familiarity with research on the NT and first century judaism.

My error in one case, following a citation from Wiki, does not invalidate my main point,
No, it shows your general approach to evaluating evidence. Find whatever you can to show whatever you want and ignore whatever evidence doesn't fit your conclusion, even if it means not even bothering to check your citations.


I demand you identify and specify the bias or cease libeling me
You come to a conclusion without any evidence, you ignore the problems with your assumptions, and you continue to avoid a rational, logical appraisal of the evidence. Either you are incapable of rational analysis, which I don't believe, or your biased.


Quick question: if medieval Hebrew scholars presumed the mouth suction was TRADITIONAL, they would then follow it, because tradition was important to them, true or false?
If 'true' then your demand that it is unlikely the process was traditional 200, or 400 years previously is obviously too weak to stand further. Because 600 years later it was suuuure important to them, that the tradition be observed, and followed.
Not definitive, but evidence points that it WAS, because you still have zero evidence for your phantom homophobic 2nd procedure.
Try reading the scholarship since Morton Smith and Neusner on the error of reading later rabbinic interpretations into earlier time. Once you have some familiarity with the scholarship which doesn't rely on misrepresenting sources you didn't bother to read, then talk about rabbinic tradition.


The date restrictions were for infants, but the procedure still had to be performed post-natal and this is clearly NOT the reason why the dates immediately after birth are cited.
Why mention the dates at all? Why not say "for infants, these are the acceptable days?" The texts mentions a procedure which is specifically for infants. It says so. You argue that the date restrictions are for infants but that somehow we should assume that everything else about the procedure applies to any one. You have no basis for this assumption. You just choose to ignore one clearly specified part of the procedure so that you can apply another to Paul. Of course, even if the date restriction weren't there, any scholar of 1st century judaism would tell you how completely unfounded reading mishnaic commentary back several centuries before rabbinic judaism existed is.
 

Heathen Hammer

Nope, you're still wrong
Right. Because your knowledge of rabbinic scholarship and the judaism of first century palestine comes from...oh wait. If you had really any familiarity at all with academic texts you'd know that decades ago (and since) a mass of schoalrship has shown that reading rabbinic literature back into the first century is incredibly problematic if it is possbile at all.
I don't need to be a scholar to state the obvious
Perfection fallacy

But you didn't stop there. No, in your rational unbiased approach you went to a text written in four centuries after Paul which doesn't specify what instrument (mouth, sponge, etc.) was used to suction blood, read in a medieval interpretation centuries after that, and then concluded that Paul put Timothy's penis in his mouth and made him his partner. The convoluted assumptions, twists, and illogical leaps involved in your conclusion are mind boggling.
Some minds are more capable than others; we are all on a bell curve.
No, what I consider is
1) The validity of reading any Talmudic procedures into 1st century judaism
2) The medieval interpretation that the talmud referred to suction via the mouth
3) The only thing you are relying on is a text written centuries later which SPECIFIES THAT IT APPLIES ONLY TO INFANTS and then you assume that this is somehow the "default." You have no reason to assume it. There's no text from even the talmudic period, let alone earlier, you can point to which demonstrates that it is. You simply assume

You entire argument is just assumptions built on more assumptions combined with a lack of familiarity with research on the NT and first century judaism.
No, it shows your general approach to evaluating evidence. Find whatever you can to show whatever you want and ignore whatever evidence doesn't fit your conclusion, even if it means not even bothering to check your citations.
If a single mistake invalidates anything/everything attached to it, then I guess you got nothing, either. I of the two of us realize things can stand on a full scope of merit. Also, you don't have any actual evidence for your phantom 2nd procedure; for you to mention evidence at me, when you have none yourself, speaks for itself.
A single misread does not invalidate my main point, son.

You come to a conclusion without any evidence,
I have evidence
you ignore the problems with your assumptions, and you continue to avoid a rational, logical appraisal of the evidence. Either you are incapable of rational analysis, which I don't believe, or your biased.
My biased what?
This is a rational analysis.

Try reading the scholarship since Morton Smith and Neusner on the error of reading later rabbinic interpretations into earlier time. Once you have some familiarity with the scholarship which doesn't rely on misrepresenting sources you didn't bother to read, then talk about rabbinic tradition.
Since this is nothing but a thought experiment, and I have made it clear it's merely speculation, I will naturally not go scouring long, boring tomes in such a way. It's not my faith, I don't give a damn. I know enough about it to state what I have. Im sure you talk about the weather all the time without a license from the NOAA. Drop your pretentiousness.
Why mention the dates at all? Why not say "for infants, these are the acceptable days?"
Why presume a text in Hebrew would follow English grammar?

The texts mentions a procedure which is specifically for infants. It says so. You argue that the date restrictions are for infants but that somehow we should assume that everything else about the procedure applies to any one.
We should assume it, its logical to assume it, unless there's something else mentioned. Adult circumcision happened even in pre-Mosaic times. If there were a different procedure it would be in need of clarification. Is the text I quoted not an explanation and clarification? If there's another procedure, written in a time period where adult circumcisions would be more prevalent given the new need in the spread of Christianity, why didn't they also explain it?
It's a ridiculous premise you have here. An clarifying, explanatory text, doesn't clarify or explain the difference. Yeah.
You have no basis for this assumption. You just choose to ignore one clearly specified part of the procedure so that you can apply another to Paul. Of course, even if the date restriction weren't there, any scholar of 1st century judaism would tell you how completely unfounded reading mishnaic commentary back several centuries before rabbinic judaism existed is.
Send one round to my place so we can confirm this
[appeal to authority]
 
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fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
Yes, it does

I brought up the numbers, as I clearly said, because the numbers show it isn't isolated; it happens 'a lot'. And, also, I bring them up because your knee jerk response on any subject bringing to light to bad habits of Christians is very consistent: 'Because it isn't the majority of all Christians, but only a miniscule minority, it's not Christians doing it etc'. You have been observed to use this bad reasoning a lot in your apologetics and I was simply heading it off.
Well, there are large numbers; you simply want to deny this with your tired, identical argument that since it isn't a majority, it doesn't happen, or that a specific case, isn't the case.

The numbers simply show that it DOES happen; are you not reading what I'm typing?
You are purposefully obtuse. It doesn't make sense because Paul would then be labeled a hypocrite [by the people during his time who looked up to him as a moral leader of the cult] and his power would disappear. Please.
Powerful men, hiding their sexual predilections while simultaneously speaking loudly against the same predilections in others? Why that never happens!
10 Conservatives Trolling Craigslist for Gay Sex at CPAC


If you can't identify my reason then you cannot claim I am biased; that's just you being afraid that Paul might be gay.
So basically, even though it doesn't happen often (the source you gave showed 6 or 7 times in the last decade, and some of those were unsubstantiated, and dropped), and we know that most who speak out against homosexuality are straight, we can then come to the conclusion that Paul is gay because a minority of ministers today are? There is no logic in that. Especially when Paul hardly speaks about homosexuality, doesn't single it out, and doesn't overly condemn it. He doesn't even fit the pattern you're talking about anyway.

Also, I don't have to identify a reason for you being biased, to see that you're biased. The reason here is probably quite simple, and you've shown evidence of it before; you simply do not like Christianity.

Again though, you can't define a majority by the minority. That is a ridiculous idea.
 
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