Desert Snake
Veteran Member
The Bible wasn't from the beginning, so that is an impossibility, of interpretation.
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That is a good responding. It actually looks like an insult.
So.....are you saying..............you agree with me?Also, the ''Bible'', isn't G-d. so that doesn't make sense either.
So.....are you saying..............you agree with me?
Yah! I think that makes two agreements in my career of posting which is reaching unhuman amounts. Really, inhuman?It seems so, on that point.
Please listen to yourself. Jesus taught us to pray, let God's will be done so it isn't us using the word. It is the Word using us. Can the BIBLE do that? Can the Bible use you?when it says Jesus is the "word" it uses the word "logos" which can mean spokesman speaker. the Biblw says no one has heard the voice of God but they have heard the voice of Jesus because He is the spokesman. the Bible contains the words God inspired in written form. Jesus and the Bible are not the same. it is two different ways to use the word "word".
Logos doesn't mean spokesperson. When in doubt, look it up! Look up the meaning of logos.if John Doe writes a book it would be fine to say that book is the word of John Doe. if John Doe has a spokesman or "logos" it would be correct to say that person is John Doe's "logos' or "word" or "spokesman" the book is the word and the person working for John Doe is the "logos". two different uses of the word. Jesus is the "logos" and He taught us to pray so what is weong with saying the "logos" "word" taught us to pray?
You wouldn't happen to have that verse, would you?when it says Jesus is the "word" it uses the word "logos" which can mean spokesman speaker. the Biblw says no one has heard the voice of God but they have heard the voice of Jesus because He is the spokesman. the Bible contains the words God inspired in written form. Jesus and the Bible are not the same. it is two different ways to use the word "word".
Apparently lostwanderingsoul has that thought confused with where it says that no man has seen God at any time but for the only begotten Son of the Father who is since his return to heaven in his bosom position.You wouldn't happen to have that verse, would you?
If Jesu was speaking via the ''father'', then de facto, wouldn't that be hearing the 'voice', of G-d? If Jesu is a manifestation of the father or is G-d, then the verse means, people hadn't heard the voice of the ''father'', because they were only able to hear the voice of the manifestation of G-d.
I highly doubt that any NT verse would say that no one had heard the voice of G-d, as well, because, in the OT, I believe that that occurs several times.
Unless there talking about a different G-d/
John is made up; Revelations doesn't say that is Yeshua.Is it Jesus? John 1:1 John 1:14 Revelation 19:13
Paul and Simon the stone (petros) are deceivers.Is it the Bible? 2 Timothy 3:16 Romans 15:4 2 Peter 1:20 2 Peter 1:21
It is neither, and both in a way.... God's word, is God's word.... Everything in reality stems from that God allows it to be, thus God's word made everything we see around us.... Yet to say one book or person, is individually the only thing that is the word of God is just stupid, and comes from man's ego.Is it both? Please explain how it is both if it is both.
What does it say it is?John is made up; Revelations doesn't say that is Yeshua.
Who is Simon the stone?Paul and Simon the stone (petros) are deceivers.
I am trying to combat the image that the thing called the Bible is fully God's Word. Please, people, see how many times the prophets spoke the word ALL and please look up it's meaning.It is neither, and both in a way.... God's word, is God's word.... Everything in reality stems from that God allows it to be, thus God's word made everything we see around us.... Yet to say one book or person, is individually the only thing that is the word of God is just stupid, and comes from man's ego.