spirit_of_dawn
Active Member
What I have understood from Baha'is debating on this forum, is that they do not consider any text scripture unless it has an authorized translation. Regardless of how much I consider this attitude unreasonable, if one were to accept this statement, there arises a whole new set of dilemmas when one refers to Baha'i texts. Consider the following statement:
So am I wrong if I state Baha'is discriminate against Persians for the mere fact that they are Persians?
“Regarding his instruction to the N.S.A. of Iran to the effect that Bahá'u'lláh's writings in Arabic should not be translated into Persian; this applies to the translation of the revealed words into Persian only. Your Assembly, therefore, may proceed with its plan for the rendering of the Tablet of Ahmad, the three daily obligatory prayers and other Tablets, into Urdu,” (Shoghi Effendi, Dawn of a new day [Bahá’í Publishing Trust of India, n.d.], p. 85)
According to Baha'i law, the Arabic works of Baha'u'llah cannot be translated into Persian (all other languages are allowed). Thus Persians, are forever handicapped regarding Baha'i theology, teachings, and beliefs for no Persian authorized translation exists or is allowed to be produced from Baha'u'llah's Arabic works. These Arabic works include thousands of Tablets including their most Holy Book: The Kitab-i Aqdas.
So am I wrong if I state Baha'is discriminate against Persians for the mere fact that they are Persians?