"THE LORD'S DAY IS THE SABBATH DAY NOT SUNDAY ACCORDING TO SCRIPTURES

[3rdAngel]

If we could get back on topic to the OP it would be great which is on the Lord's Day...

SUNDAY WORSHIP IS NOT THE LORD'S DAY

The term "the Lord's day" was used by some in the early Church as a reference to Sunday worship in celebration of the resurrection of Jesus. It comes from a scripture in the bible found in Revelation 1

• REVELATION 1:10 10, I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet

The Greek words used for the day that JOHN was in the Spirit of is the for Lord's day are

• REVELATION 1:10 εγενομην εν πνευματι εν τη κυριακη ημερα και ηκουσα οπισω μου φωνην μεγαλην ως σαλπιγγος

The word "κυριακη" (translit. "kuriake") is an Adjective - Dative - Singular - Feminine. This means it is being used as a 'possessive' as ownership or belonging to ("of", see 1 Corinthians 11:20, "the Lord's supper"), which means the "day" in context belongs to "the Lord". It is literally "the Lord's (belonging to) day". This means, that the "day" in context is uniquely "the Lord's" out of all the 7 days of the week, for the day under consideration is that which exists within the week, as a day which repeats weekly. This is extremely important, as those who incorrectly assume it to mean "the first [day] of the week" in lieu of Jesus' resurrection, cannot get a weekly occurrence out of a one-time event, in fulfillment of typology of the Firstfruit/Wavesheaf in Leviticus 23:9-14, as made known in 1 Corinthians 15:20,23

The problem here however is that there is not a single scripture that references Sunday or the first day of the week (bible names for the days of the week) to being "the Lords day" in scripture.

According to the scripture "the Lords day" however can be referenced to "the Sabbath day" of Gods' 4th commandment found in Exodus 20:8-11.

Letting the scriptures answer this question

• WHAT DAY IS THE LORD'S DAY ACCORDING TO THE SCRIPTURES?

• MATTHEW 12:8 FOR THE SON OF MAN IS LORD EVEN OF THE SABBATH DAY

This then promotes a bit of a dilemma for the Church as there is not a single scripture in all of the bible that days "the Lords day" from Revelation 1:10 is Sunday. Yet there is many scriptures referencing "the Lords day" or Gods' specific claims to ownership of any particular day to the Sabbath day that he blessed and set aside as a holy day of rest for a memorial of creation (see Genesis 2:1-3) and made one of Gods' 10 commandments (Exodus 20:8-11).

God's "ownership" of the Sabbath day or "Lord's day is also repeated elsewhere as "MY" (ownership of the day as in the Greek used in REVELATION 1:10 κυριακη). Other scriptures in the bible pointing to "the Lords day" as being the Sabbath day...

• MATTHEW 12:8 FOR THE SON OF MAN IS LORD EVEN OF THE SABBATH DAY. (the Sabbath day is Lord's day)

• ISAIAH 58:13-14 [13], If you turn away your foot from the SABBATH, from doing your pleasure on MY HOLY DAY (God's claim to ownership of the Sabbath day); and call the sabbath a delight, the holy of the LORD, honorable; and shall honor him, not doing your own ways, nor finding your own pleasure, nor speaking your own words: [14], Then shall you delight yourself in the LORD; and I will cause you to ride on the high places of the earth, and feed you with the heritage of Jacob your father: for the mouth of the LORD has spoken it.

• LEVITICUS 19:30 You shall keep MY SABBATHS, (God's claim to ownership of the Sabbath day)and reverence my sanctuary: I am the LORD.

• EZEKIEL 20:12 Moreover also I gave them MY SABBATHS, (God's claim to ownership of the Sabbath day) to be a sign between me and them, that they might know that I am the LORD that sanctify them.

κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ used in Revelations 1:10 is in reference to the Lord's ownership of the day. It does not say that this day is in reference to μιά των σαββάτων which means the FIRST DAY OF THE WEEK.

............................

Your challenge here in this OP is to prove from the scriptures alone that the Lord's DAY is in reference to the First day of the week. If you cannot all you have is a teaching and tradition of men that is not supported in the scriptures. There is not a single scripture in all the bible that refers to Sunday as being "the Lords day".

May God bless you as you seek Him through His Word.

 

[IndigoChild5559]

If we could get back on topic to the OP it would be great which is on the Lord's Day...

SUNDAY WORSHIP IS NOT THE LORD'S DAY

The term "the Lord's day" was used by some in the early Church as a reference to Sunday worship in celebration of the resurrection of Jesus. It comes from a scripture in the bible found in Revelation 1

• REVELATION 1:10 10, I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet

The Greek words used for the day that JOHN was in the Spirit of is the for Lord's day are

• REVELATION 1:10 εγενομην εν πνευματι εν τη κυριακη ημερα και ηκουσα οπισω μου φωνην μεγαλην ως σαλπιγγος

The word "κυριακη" (translit. "kuriake") is an Adjective - Dative - Singular - Feminine. This means it is being used as a 'possessive' as ownership or belonging to ("of", see 1 Corinthians 11:20, "the Lord's supper"), which means the "day" in context belongs to "the Lord". It is literally "the Lord's (belonging to) day". This means, that the "day" in context is uniquely "the Lord's" out of all the 7 days of the week, for the day under consideration is that which exists within the week, as a day which repeats weekly. This is extremely important, as those who incorrectly assume it to mean "the first [day] of the week" in lieu of Jesus' resurrection, cannot get a weekly occurrence out of a one-time event, in fulfillment of typology of the Firstfruit/Wavesheaf in Leviticus 23:9-14, as made known in 1 Corinthians 15:20,23

The problem here however is that there is not a single scripture that references Sunday or the first day of the week (bible names for the days of the week) to being "the Lords day" in scripture.

According to the scripture "the Lords day" however can be referenced to "the Sabbath day" of Gods' 4th commandment found in Exodus 20:8-11.

Letting the scriptures answer this question

• WHAT DAY IS THE LORD'S DAY ACCORDING TO THE SCRIPTURES?

• MATTHEW 12:8 FOR THE SON OF MAN IS LORD EVEN OF THE SABBATH DAY

This then promotes a bit of a dilemma for the Church as there is not a single scripture in all of the bible that days "the Lords day" from Revelation 1:10 is Sunday. Yet there is many scriptures referencing "the Lords day" or Gods' specific claims to ownership of any particular day to the Sabbath day that he blessed and set aside as a holy day of rest for a memorial of creation (see Genesis 2:1-3) and made one of Gods' 10 commandments (Exodus 20:8-11).

God's "ownership" of the Sabbath day or "Lord's day is also repeated elsewhere as "MY" (ownership of the day as in the Greek used in REVELATION 1:10 κυριακη). Other scriptures in the bible pointing to "the Lords day" as being the Sabbath day...

• MATTHEW 12:8 FOR THE SON OF MAN IS LORD EVEN OF THE SABBATH DAY. (the Sabbath day is Lord's day)

• ISAIAH 58:13-14 [13], If you turn away your foot from the SABBATH, from doing your pleasure on MY HOLY DAY (God's claim to ownership of the Sabbath day); and call the sabbath a delight, the holy of the LORD, honorable; and shall honor him, not doing your own ways, nor finding your own pleasure, nor speaking your own words: [14], Then shall you delight yourself in the LORD; and I will cause you to ride on the high places of the earth, and feed you with the heritage of Jacob your father: for the mouth of the LORD has spoken it.

• LEVITICUS 19:30 You shall keep MY SABBATHS, (God's claim to ownership of the Sabbath day)and reverence my sanctuary: I am the LORD.

• EZEKIEL 20:12 Moreover also I gave them MY SABBATHS, (God's claim to ownership of the Sabbath day) to be a sign between me and them, that they might know that I am the LORD that sanctify them.

κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ used in Revelations 1:10 is in reference to the Lord's ownership of the day. It does not say that this day is in reference to μιά των σαββάτων which means the FIRST DAY OF THE WEEK.

............................

Your challenge here in this OP is to prove from the scriptures alone that the Lord's DAY is in reference to the First day of the week. If you cannot all you have is a teaching and tradition of men that is not supported in the scriptures. There is not a single scripture in all the bible that refers to Sunday as being "the Lords day".

May God bless you as you seek Him through His Word.

You have made a very basic error. The expression in question is "The Lord's Day." You have gone to other places in the bible that use similar but DIFFERENT expressions. The truth is that "The Lord's Day" did not exist as a concept until after the formation of the Christian church. There is NO OTHER PLACE in the bible that the exact expression "The Lord's Day" is used, so since the Revelation verse does not contain a descritpion of which day of the week it is, you really cannot determine the day from the Bible.

You have two choices. The first choice is to throw up your hands and say "The Bible doesn't say which day it is so we can never know, since only the Bible can be a source."

The second choice is that you can go to Christian sources that are outside the Bible and see what can be learned. IOW the writings of the Apostolic Fathers. Let's see what they say:

Ignatius: Letter to the Magnesians
"If, therefore, those who were brought up in the ancient order of things have come to the possession of a new hope, no longer observing the Sabbath, but living in the observance of the Lord's Day,"

So we know for sure, for absolute certain, that the Lord's day is NOT the Sabbath, but was a substitute for Sabbath worship in the early church. So which day is it then?

Letter of Barnabas:
Wherefore, also, we keep the eighth day with joyfulness, the day also on which Jesus rose again from the dead. And when He had manifested Himself, He ascended into the heavens.

So from this we can conclude that the Lord's Day is the eighth day, aka the day after the sabbath. IOW Sunday.

 

[samtonga43]

I see you are afraid to expose what you believe about your multiple gods: god the Father; god the son; god the Holy Spirit!

But I have ‘exposed’ (strange word to use…) what I believe about the Triune God. The fact that you don’t understand what I have said does not mean I have not said it. Logic is not your strong point, is it, Soapy?

Jesus was a man whom the god of heaven anointed with his power by his spirit. Jesus, himself, declared that god had ‘set him aside for greatness: Priesthood and kingship’… Consecrated him and by so enabled him to do great things (called ‘Miracles’ in the scriptures…)
Notice that Jesus did not do any of these miracles until after he was anointed ‘With Holy Spirit and Power’ (Acts 10:37-38).
The Apostles, likewise, did ‘Miracles’ by means of the spirit of god in them after being anointed with god’s spirit at Pentecost.
The greatness of God in man is seen by the operation of the spirit of god in them - God’s active force enabling man to carry out unheard of positive things in the world.
Yet you know that the spirit of the one true God is not a person. ‘It’ is the personal spirit of Yahweh. It is the means by which Yahweh carries out the things He declares both in Heaven and in the created world - indeed, to create the created world: all things were created BY IT and there is nothing created that was not created BY IT.
God spoke: ‘Let there be light!’ and His almighty spirit acted to bring it to realisation. This is why it is said that the word of Yahweh is ‘God’… it means that Yahweh’s utterances are ALMIGHTY… Monumental… Irresistible … All Powerful…

Here is what the Word of God says about The Word of God…
“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God. All things were made through him, and without him was not anything made that was made. In him was life, and the life was the light of men. The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome it”.
Now, who to believe?
The Word of God?
Or Soapy?

This is expressing that though there are mighty ones in the world, the god (context…) of heaven is greater than all of them. IT DOES NOT DENY (it even PROCLAIMS) that there are others whom are called ‘god’.

There is only one god who can be called God by a Christian.

If you are afraid of this simple reality then it is indicative of your inability to understand greater matters.

Afraid? God speaks: “Fear not, for I am with you; be not dismayed, for I am your God; I will strengthen you, I will help you, I will uphold you with my righteous right hand”. Isaiah 41:10

But look again… there was ONLY ONE GOLDEN CALF!!!

Indeed. A god of gold.

If you were reading the verses in Greek, or Hebrew, or Aramaic, would there have been capitalisations in the verses???

The method of capitalization in other languages is not relevant; Soapy. There is no point at all in blaming translation if you come across something that does not fit with what you have been taught. That would be every immature.
You miss the entire point of translation, because you are trying so hard to deny that the Christian God is Triune.

 

[samtonga43]

Ha ha ha…. Personal names and titles are generally first-letter capitalised as an emphasis. ‘Satan’ is a TITLE… it is not a NAME. It means: ‘Accuser / Adversary’ and is applied to ANYONE who WRONGLY AND HIGHLY ERRS against another person. It is applied more often to THE ANGEL who first opposed and caused humanity to oppose the command of God. So just as the title ‘God’ can be applied to anyone of highly glorious, powerful, ultimate authorative status, etc, so also the title of ‘Satan’ can be applied to someone who greatly wrongfully opposes a truth from someone else. But since it is almost a sin to accuse anyone so wrongfully high, it is generally not used of humans.
But Jesus, with authority, accused certain Jews of being ‘Sons of Satan’ (paraphrased) - meaning that these Jews were so badly opposing the word of god that they resembled the angel who was the ‘Father of the lie’…”The Satan”.

Soapy! Please stop squirming and answer this direct question:-
*Are you applying the name ‘Satan’ to 3rdAngel and myself?

Yes?
No?

 

[3rdAngel]

You have made a very basic error. The expression in question is "The Lord's Day." You have gone to other places in the bible that use similar but DIFFERENT expressions. The truth is that "The Lord's Day" did not exist as a concept until after the formation of the Christian church. There is NO OTHER PLACE in the bible that the exact expression "The Lord's Day" is used, so since the Revelation verse does not contain a descritpion of which day of the week it is, you really cannot determine the day from the Bible.

You have two choices. The first choice is to throw up your hands and say "The Bible doesn't say which day it is so we can never know, since only the Bible can be a source."

The second choice is that you can go to Christian sources that are outside the Bible and see what can be learned. IOW the writings of the Apostolic Fathers. Let's see what they say:

Ignatius: Letter to the Magnesians
"If, therefore, those who were brought up in the ancient order of things have come to the possession of a new hope, no longer observing the Sabbath, but living in the observance of the Lord's Day,"

So we know for sure, for absolute certain, that the Lord's day is NOT the Sabbath, but was a substitute for Sabbath worship in the early church. So which day is it then?

Letter of Barnabas:
Wherefore, also, we keep the eighth day with joyfulness, the day also on which Jesus rose again from the dead. And when He had manifested Himself, He ascended into the heavens.

So from this we can conclude that the Lord's Day is the eighth day, aka the day after the sabbath. IOW Sunday.

Hi Indigo, thanks for trying to get back to the OP. There is no error in the post you are responding to. Please read the OP before responding. What you are quoting is not scripture. The meaning of τη κυριακη ημερα is in regard to a day the Lord specifically claims ownership over. There is no scripture in the entire bible with God claiming ownership over the first day of the week. This is a man-made teaching and tradition that is not supported in the scriptures. However, the scriptures clearly state Gods ownership over the Sabbath day as shown in the post you are quoting from in Matthew 12:8; Isaiah 58:13-14; Leviticus 19:30 and Ezekiel 20:12 and Ezekiel 20:20. Your challenge here in this OP is to prove from the scriptures alone that the Lord's DAY is in reference to the First day of the week. If you cannot all you have is a teaching and tradition of men that is not supported in the scriptures. There is not a single scripture in all the bible that refers to Sunday as being "the Lords day".

Take Care

 

[IndigoChild5559]

There is no error read what your quoting from and please read the OP before responding. What you are quoting is not scripture. The meaning of τη κυριακη ημερα is the Lords ownership of the day. There is no scripture in the entire bible with God claiming ownership over the first day of the week. However, the scriptures clearly state Gods ownership over the Sabbath day as shown in the post you are quoting from in Matthew 12:8; Isaiah 58:13-14; Leviticus 19:30 and Ezekiel 20:12 and Ezekiel 20:20. Your challenge here in this OP is to prove from the scriptures alone that the Lord's DAY is in reference to the First day of the week. If you cannot all you have is a teaching and tradition of men that is not supported in the scriptures. There is not a single scripture in all the bible that refers to Sunday as being "the Lords day".

Take Care

You apparentely didn't read my post carefully, so I will reiterate my points.

• There is exactly one place, in Revelation, that uses the expression "The Lord's Day." It exists no where else in scripture.
• Revelation does not stipulate which day of the week is the Lord's Day.
• Therefore you cannot learn from the Bible which day the Lord's day is.
• You are left with your only sensible choice being to go to early Christian writings that are outside the Bible, aka the Church Fathers.
• The church fathers (Ignatius, letter to the Magesians and Letter of Barnabas) rule out the Sabbath as being the Lord's Day, and identify Sunday as teh Lord's Day.

Unless you are willing to address those points, don't bother replying.

 

[3rdAngel]

You apparentely didn't read my post carefully, so I will reiterate my points.

I did indeed read your post and responded to it showing that what you posted the first time was not scripture and that the scriptures provided in the OP define the Lords ownership of the day as the Sabbath day in Matthew 12:8; Isaiah 58:13-14; Leviticus 19:30 and Ezekiel 20:12 and Ezekiel 20:20. The OP is asking for scripture and you did not provide any to support your view which is what the OP is asking.

There is exactly one place, in Revelation, that uses the expression "The Lord's Day." It exists no where else in scripture.

As pointed out earlier in the OP and also in the post you are responding to the meaning of τη κυριακη ημερα is in regard to a day the Lord specifically claims ownership over. So whether the term is used no where else in the bible is irrelevant if it can be shown from the scriptures alone what day God specifically claims ownership over. As posted in the post you are quoting from and the OP the Lord specifically claims ownership over the Sabbath day in Matthew 12:8; Isaiah 58:13-14; Leviticus 19:30 and Ezekiel 20:12 and Ezekiel 20:20.

Revelation does not stipulate which day of the week is the Lord's Day.

Agreed but the rest of the bible does state which day God and Jesus claim ownership over in Matthew 12:8; Isaiah 58:13-14; Leviticus 19:30 and Ezekiel 20:12 and Ezekiel 20:20 and it is the Sabbath day.

Therefore you cannot learn from the Bible which day the Lord's day is.

As shown above above we can learn from the scriptures that τη κυριακη ημερα is in regard to a day the Lord specifically claims ownership over and from the scriptures provided above we can see that the day that the Lord claims ownership over in the Sabbath day (Matthew 12:8; Isaiah 58:13-14; Leviticus 19:30 and Ezekiel 20:12 and Ezekiel 20:20).

You are left with your only sensible choice being to go to early Christian writings that are outside the Bible, aka the Church Fathers.

That is not true at all and no they are not my Church fathers. As shown from the scriptures alone that day that the Lord and God claim direct ownership over is the Sabbath day not Sunday ( see Matthew 12:8; Isaiah 58:13-14; Leviticus 19:30 and Ezekiel 20:12 and Ezekiel 20:20).

The church fathers (Ignatius, letter to the Magesians and Letter of Barnabas) rule out the Sabbath as being the Lord's Day, and identify Sunday as teh Lord's Day.

Irrelevant as they are not scripture and the scriptures alone define what day the Lord God claims ownership over and it is the Sabbath day as shown in Matthew 12:8; Isaiah 58:13-14; Leviticus 19:30 and Ezekiel 20:12 and Ezekiel 20:20.

Unless you are willing to address those points, don't bother replying.

Responded to the first time but went the extra mile to show why I believe your post was in error.

 

[IndigoChild5559]

I did indeed read your post and responded to it showing that what you posted the first time was not scripture and that the scriptures provided in the OP define the Lords ownership of the day as the Sabbath day in Matthew 12:8; Isaiah 58:13-14; Leviticus 19:30 and Ezekiel 20:12 and Ezekiel 20:20. The OP is asking for scripture and you did not provide any to support your view which is what the OP is asking.

As pointed out earlier in the OP and also in the post you are responding to the meaning of τη κυριακη ημερα is in regard to a day the Lord specifically claims ownership over. So whether the term is used no where else in the bible is irrelevant if it can be shown from the scriptures alone what day God specifically claims ownership over. As posted in the post you are quoting from and the OP the Lord specifically claims ownership over the Sabbath day in Matthew 12:8; Isaiah 58:13-14; Leviticus 19:30 and Ezekiel 20:12 and Ezekiel 20:20.

Agreed but the rest of the bible does state which day God and Jesus claim ownership over in Matthew 12:8; Isaiah 58:13-14; Leviticus 19:30 and Ezekiel 20:12 and Ezekiel 20:20 and it is the Sabbath day.

As shown above above we can learn from the scriptures that τη κυριακη ημερα is in regard to a day the Lord specifically claims ownership over and from the scriptures provided above we can see that the day that the Lord claims ownership over in the Sabbath day (Matthew 12:8; Isaiah 58:13-14; Leviticus 19:30 and Ezekiel 20:12 and Ezekiel 20:20).

That is not true at all and no they are not my Church fathers. As shown from the scriptures alone that day that the Lord and God claim direct ownership over is the Sabbath day not Sunday ( see Matthew 12:8; Isaiah 58:13-14; Leviticus 19:30 and Ezekiel 20:12 and Ezekiel 20:20).

Irrelevant as they are not scripture and the scriptures alone define what day the Lord God claims ownership over and it is the Sabbath day as shown in Matthew 12:8; Isaiah 58:13-14; Leviticus 19:30 and Ezekiel 20:12 and Ezekiel 20:20.

Responded to the first time but went the extra mile to show why I believe your post was in error.

You are making the same mistake over and over, a mistake which I addressed in my first post to you on this.

The phrase "The Lord's Day" is a specific expression. You cannot look for other expressions that are similar and think they mean the same. For example, "The Day of the Lord" sound like the same thing but in fact refers to the time that God will come to judge the world. Thus, none of your scripture verses actually apply to "The Lord's Day" because none them say quote "the Lord's Day" unquote. You have no case.

I on the other hand, quoted from Ignatius' Letter to the Magnesians, which DID actually use the exact quote ,"The Lord's Day" and was very clear that it was the alternative to the Sabbath, not the Sabbath. You have yet to address that quote.

 

[3rdAngel]

You are making the same mistake over and over, a mistake which I addressed in my first post to you on this.

The phrase "The Lord's Day" is a specific expression. You cannot look for other expressions that are similar and think they mean the same. For example, "The Day of the Lord" sound like the same thing but in fact refers to the time that God will come to judge the world. Thus, none of your scripture verses actually apply to "The Lord's Day" because none them say quote "the Lord's Day" unquote. You have no case.

I on the other hand, quoted from Ignatius' Letter to the Magnesians, which DID actually use the exact quote ,"The Lord's Day" and was very clear that it was the alternative to the Sabbath, not the Sabbath. You have yet to address that quote.

No it is you making the same mistake over and over as proven in the post you did not address or respond to. In fact you simply ignored my earlier posts to you that addressed your posts in detail proving why your claims were not correct. As posted earlier, the OP is about proving from the scriptures alone what day is "the Lords Day" not posting man-made teachings and opinions outside of the bible not supported by the bible. As shown from the scriptures alone, the Sabbath day is "the Lords day" as proven in Matthew 12:8; Isaiah 58:13-14; Leviticus 19:30 and Ezekiel 20:12 and Ezekiel 20:20. Lets be honest. You have no scripture do you proving that Sunday or the first day of the week is "the Lords day". Just be honest and say so. As posted earlier Sunday worship as "the Lords day" is a man-made teaching and tradition that is not supported in the scriptures. You have to go outside of the bible to make that claim. I quote you scripture and you on the other hand post the teachings and traditions of men unsupported by scripture. Lets be honest in our discussion. There is no scripture that says that "the Lords day is Sunday or the first day of the week. On the other hand there is a lot of scripture showing God's ownership of the Sabbath day being "the Lords day". You lose because you cannot support your view from the scriptures..

Take Care

 

[IndigoChild5559]

No it is you making the same mistake over and over

I addressed your errors twice, explaining to you why they were errors.

Look, I've done my due diligence and informed you why you are mistaken. But I understand that you are emotionally attached to your opinions and cannot hear me. Let's just let this go.

 

[3rdAngel]

I addressed your errors twice, explaining to you why they were errors.

Look, I've done my due diligence and informed you why you are mistaken. But I understand that you are emotionally attached to your opinions and cannot hear me. Let's just let this go.

No you did not at all please post me a link. You only exposed your errors. The OP is asking for scripture. You were provided scriptures proving "the Lord's day" is the Sabbath day according to the old and new testament. Your response was to post the teachings and traditions of men unsupported by the scriptures. It is you it seems that is emotionally attached to your opinions and the opinions of others over the scriptures shared with you.

Take Care.

 

[IndigoChild5559]

The OP is asking for scripture.

There are NO Scriptures that designate which day of the week "the Lord's Day" is.

 

[3rdAngel]

There are NO Scriptures that designate which day of the week "the Lord's Day" is.

Sorry dear friend that is not true at all. As posted earlier, the meaning of τη κυριακη ημερα is in regard to a day the Lord specifically claims ownership over. What is true is that there is no scripture in the entire bible with God claiming ownership over the first day of the week. This is a man-made teaching and tradition that is not supported in the scriptures. However, the scriptures clearly state Gods ownership over the Sabbath day as shown in the posts you have been quoting from in Matthew 12:8; Isaiah 58:13-14; Leviticus 19:30 and Ezekiel 20:12 and Ezekiel 20:20. It would probably help you if you did some more research on the meaning of the Koine Greek words τη κυριακη ημερα.

Take Care

 

[IndigoChild5559]

Sorry dear friend that is not true at all. As posted earlier, the meaning of τη κυριακη ημερα is in regard to a day the Lord specifically claims ownership over. What is true is that there is no scripture in the entire bible with God claiming ownership over the first day of the week. This is a man-made teaching and tradition that is not supported in the scriptures. However, the scriptures clearly state Gods ownership over the Sabbath day as shown in the posts you have been quoting from in Matthew 12:8; Isaiah 58:13-14; Leviticus 19:30 and Ezekiel 20:12 and Ezekiel 20:20. It would probably help you if you did some more research on the meaning of the Koine Greek words τη κυριακη ημερα.

Take Care

We are both repeating ourselves. That is the best sign that a discussion is over.

 

[Soapy]

Why? You asked for evidence. It was given to you and now you do not like it?

I don’t expect a tome worth.

‘Less is more!’

 

[Soapy]

No desperation on my side. Why are you so upset? You were the one asking for evidence to the meanings of Sabbath (Sabbath) and Shabath (Rest) from the Hebrew which was in disagreement with your posts earlier. Now you’re upset about being corrected.

I presented evidence from a Jewish website.

Are you claiming that Jews do not know their own language usage?

 

[Soapy]

Burnt offerings were made for everyday of the week under the old covenant Sanctuary laws under the Levitical Priesthood for sin offerings and for forgiveness of sins which all pointed to the coming of Jesus as Gods' sacrifice for the sins of the world once and for all *See John 1:29 and Hebrews 10:10. We are in the new covenant now based on better promises and these sacrificial and ceremonial laws that pointed to things to come in God's promised Messiah and Saviour have now been fulfilled and continued in Jesus to who they pointed to (see Hebrews 7:1-25; Hebrews 8:1-13; Hebrews 9:1-27 and Hebrews 10:1-22). There Sabbath however is one of God's 10 commandments that give us the knowledge of good and evil in the new covenant and according to the scriptures if we knowingly break anyone of them we stand guilty before God of sin (see James 2:10-11; 1 John 3:4).

Once again according to the scriptures, in the old covenant, the death penalty was not unique to the Sabbath but was applied to all of God’s 10 commandments and were a part of the civil laws of Moses given to the nation of Israel for anyone openly or publicly caught breaking Gods' 10 commandments to help teach God’s people that the wages of sin is death as also shown in the new covenant to all who have sinned (Romans 6:23). The same death penalty was given to anyone who was caught breaking 1st Commandment (Exodus 20:3), Thou shalt have no other gods before me (Deuteronomy 17:1-5; 14:6-10; Exodus 22:20); 2nd Commandment, (Exodus 20:4) Thou shalt not make unto thee any idols (Exodus 20:4; Deuteronomy 27: 15); 3rd Commandment (Exodus 20:7), Thou shalt not take the name of the Lord in vain (Leviticus 24:16); 4th Commandment Sabbath (Exodus 20:8-11) see Exodus 31:14-15; 35:2; 5th commandment (Exodus 20:12) honor your father and mother see Exodus 21:15-17; 6th commandment thou shalt not kill (Exodus 20:13) see Leviticus 24:17; Numbers 35:31-33; 7th commandment thou shalt not commit Adultery (Exodus 20:14) see Leviticus 20:10; John 8:3-5; 8th Commandment thou shall not steal (Exodus 20:15) but only applied to man stealing or kidnapping (Exodus 21:16); 9th commandment (Exodus 20:16) thou shall not bear false witness see Deuteronomy 19:15-21 and the 10th commandments thou shall not covet (Exodus 20:17) see Joshua 7:21-25.

This of course all ceased during the time of Christ when Israel was under Roman rule and law and at the death of Christ bringing an end to the old covenant and the bringing in of the new covenant. The death penalty is still in force today because it is written that the wages of sin is death for those that do not repent before the time of judgement is finished (Romans 6:23; James 2:8-12) but enforcement of the death penalty does not take place until the second coming (see Psalms 9:17; Matthew 5:22,29,30, 10:28, 18:9, 23:15,33; Mark 9:43,45,47; Luke 12:5; 2 Thessalonians 1:9; James 3:6; Revelation 2:11, 20:6,14, 21:8 etc etc) The only difference today is that we are in the new covenant now so we no longer put people to open death because we are not in the physical nation of Israel in the flesh or under the old covenant civil laws of Israel. The death penalty for sin is still the same however for those who reject the gift of God's dear son *Romans 6:23 but Jesus says now that Vengeance is mine and his reward will be with him at the 2nd coming *Romans 12:19-21; Revelation 22:12. God's Word does not teach or support the false doctrine of lawlessness (without law) and Gods' 4th commandment in the new covenant is one of God's 10 commandments that give us the knowledge of what sin is when broken *Exodus 20:8-10; Romans 3:20; Romans 7:7; 1 John 3:4.

@Soapy I am guessing you will ignore all of my posts and scriptures that are in disagreement with you but that is alright as I am use to it. I have answered your questions anyway for anyone interested in what the bible says.

Hope this is helpful.

The Death Penalty is not in force for someone working on the seventh day: breaking the Sabbath law.

Basically, you are saying in your usual humungously long posts:

• The command for burnt offerings no longer apply
• The law of putting JEWS to death for violating the sabbath law NO LONGER apply

Thank you!
Jesus said that worship on the mountain nor in the Jerusalem are law.

Worship is in now spirit and truth.

Worship in Spirit and truth can be carried out at any time and in any place reverent to God.

However, Jesus also said that it was right to gather together for worship - which therefore does not exclude Corporate Worship on ANY day of the week and in particular on a day of the week such that the participant is not working all seven days of the week : one day, at least, must be given over to ‘SABBATH’: Rest from secular work.

 

[Soapy]

But I have ‘exposed’ (strange word to use…) what I believe about the Triune God. The fact that you don’t understand what I have said does not mean I have not said it. Logic is not your strong point, is it, Soapy?

Here is what the Word of God says about The Word of God…
“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God. All things were made through him, and without him was not anything made that was made. In him was life, and the life was the light of men. The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome it”.
Now, who to believe?
The Word of God?
Or Soapy?

There is only one god who can be called God by a Christian.

Afraid? God speaks: “Fear not, for I am with you; be not dismayed, for I am your God; I will strengthen you, I will help you, I will uphold you with my righteous right hand”. Isaiah 41:10

Indeed. A god of gold.

The method of capitalization in other languages is not relevant; Soapy. There is no point at all in blaming translation if you come across something that does not fit with what you have been taught. That would be every immature.
You miss the entire point of translation, because you are trying so hard to deny that the Christian God is Triune.

Ignorance of true scriptures is ever your downfall:

• ‘For us (True believers), there is only one God: The Father…’
• ‘Father, … Eternal life depends on believing in you, the only true God…’
• ‘Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one.’

These verses state Yahweh God as a single entity. There is no ‘hint’ of three persons as this one God.

Im ending this aspect of the debate with you as it is completely nonsensical. I can see you don’t understand what you are stating because you do not understand scriptures - as I suspected from the beginning.

You can continue to be in ignorance but just know that it will not bode well for you except that maybe you can claim that you were only blindly, faithfully, and fanatically believing what you were taught - even if your teachers were wrong: like the early church up to the Middle Ages firmly believing that the planet earth was the centre of the universe and even killed or threatened to kill anyone who didn’t ‘believe the lie’. Thank God there were those who sacrificed themselves to bring the truth to the fore…

(How do you think the church felt when they finally realised it had been wrong and had killed so many people in the injustice of ignorance!!?)

 

[Soapy]

There are NO Scriptures that designate which day of the week "the Lord's Day" is.

What you said is true. If it were not so then this thread would be far far shorter and less divergent.

The first thing is ask ‘Which “Lord” is being spoken about?’

But since there literally are no other verses or references to anything of the kind, no one can know…

There are just some things not (yet) given to a generation to know…. And in this generation, that question is one of them!

 

[3rdAngel]

I presented evidence from a Jewish website.
Are you claiming that Jews do not know their own language usage?

There was nothing in the linked post that you presented that disagreed with anything that was said to you. In fact it was disagreeing with you and agreeing what what I had already shared with you from the scriptures.