JS
So, if Jesus was not a member of the Sanhedrin then this could be the reason for his debating with the Pharisees. As you can't possibly know what Priesthood order Jesus was sent through, and the bible only stating he was through the order of Melchizedek, and that order ran through to Levite election as covenanted in the anointed priests,"by Aarons rod that bloomed", where does that leave us in concluding the authority of Jesus to judge via the law? It looks to me like the Levite heritage is the only source for Jesus authority in judging by laws established and "the way" he was sent to the lost sheep. So therein we see Jesus debating law with the Pharisees, and his being called "Lord" of his disciple students, and they calling him "rabbi".
Why would Jesus have sat with 70 other Jews when Jews were not anointed to anything? However, I can speculate that the elders Jesus sat with may have been 70+ Jews discussing whatever they discussed in those days. I would wager they even discussed the weather.
It is mentioned that Jesus taught in the temple at Jerusalem and was a learned fellow. So where do you think Jesus might have picked up his education other than his own teachers who were priests? Maybe Elizabeth's husband Zackeriah taught Jesus just as he probably taught his own son John the Baptist. Or maybe even Jesus was taught while exiled in Egypt by priests who possibly were of the House of Joseph (those "other" children hidden from the pages of the bible). There are so many possibilities other than Sanhedrin.
I see no extraordinary thing about Jesus reproving and correcting error in laws. This is the way I see him as "saving" the people from untentional transgressions(sin). Even the Pharisee hypocrits did the same in admonishing their fellow men, the exception is seen however, in how the Pharisees did not follow their own advice.
Why don't you tell me the scripture about "frontlets" between the eyes so I can then give you the reason why that invention was one of the most bazaar practices incorporated into the tradition of the elders. If Jesus wore frontlets it is not mentioned, and if it was law for priests or everyone concerned, he did not change those things.
Yes, the bible states God made a covenant with Levi. Malachi 2:1-10 paying attention to verse 4. and verse 7..."for the priests lips should keep knowledge and they should seek the law at his mouth; for he is the messenger of the Lord of hosts. And Jesus of course was a priestly messenger sent to save the lost sheep.
Also, I read the story as telling how the Levites were separated in a covenant from the other tribes to be priests, and all Israel was not included in that particular covenant. The other tribes were given their own individual inheritances of land (the earth beneath) and the Levites were set "above" the other tribes in the kingdom of heaven. They were to be a "Light" unto the "nations", (cities-children of Israel).
I have never read the Babylonian or Jerusalem Talmuds. I also have never read the book of Mormoms, or all of Martin Luther's ravings, but I have read the ingredients on a can of spitgetti & meatballs. Does that count?
Seriously, lets stick to what I know best, the KJV of which my past Christianity came out of and my present atheism began. (I'm also NOT interested in Hebrew)
thank you