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You don't have any answer to the question of who Psalm 22 and 69 are about.
| 23 | He that hateth me hateth my Father also. |
| 24 | If I had not done among them the works which none other man did, they had not had sin: but now have they both seen and hated both me and my Father. |
| 25 | But [this cometh to pass], that the word might be fulfilled that is written in their law, They hated me without a cause. |
| 26 | But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, [even] the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me: |
| 4 | They that hate me without a cause are more than the hairs of mine head: they that would destroy me, [being] mine enemies wrongfully, are mighty: then I restored [that] which I took not away. |
In the Hebrew, God isn't ambiguous. So the site disproved you and you respond with a claim of generalized ambiguity?
"God" as a Hebrew word has nothing to do with Elohim.
Let's look first at psalm 22. It's about David. Furthermore, it is the chapter where Chrsitain bibles mistranslate verse 17. Here is a good translation: "For dogs have surrounded me; a band of evildoers has encompassed me, like a lion, my hands and feet." Notice that the Christian "pierced" stuff is not there. Instead, it properly translates "like a lion"
Why do you say that?
Because it begins with the words "A Psalm for Davd."
So if I said I had a song for Mary, would that mean that Mary wrote it?
So you aren't discussing God but gad? In Hebrew there are many words for the English word "God." Are you discussing the language of Psalm 110 or Isaiah 65?
Of course not. It means the person who wrote it did so with the intention of singing it to her.
Like I already said, this is a WRONG translation. There is nothing in the hebrew about pierced.
So if the song said "dogs have compassed me", the "me" wouldn't be Mary, but someone else?
So what? It doesn't affect my argument about dogs encompassing a protected king.
No, the original Hebrew didn't have vowels - the name of the Semitic deity GD could be pronounced as god or gad.
I'm just not following you. The psalm is about David, and his experiences. That's just not rocket science.
All the imagery used in the poem relays a sense of being trapped. I'm sure David was in that position any number of times.
What's happening is that you're trying to make the facts fit your conclusion, and it's not working because your conclusion is a non-sequitur.
For example?
Excuse me… if saving us from the consequences of our own sins has no basis in Jewish thought, then how do you understand / explain Daniel’s writing of the angel’s words recorded in Daniel 9:24 about the Moshiach, “in order to terminate the transgression, to finish off sin, to make atonement for error, to bring in everlasting righteousness…”?
"sacrifice himself" is not the same as "make atonement for error".
I don't remember that any of them involved him being encompassed by anyone.
The Hebrew word gad means fortune or luck (see Genesis 30:11). It was the name of one of Jacob's sons. It wasn't the name of God.
It's a turn of phrase. He felt trapped.