Maya cannot be the effect of ignorance.Because,the effect of ignorance cannot be present without the actual ignorance in the ignorant.If you conclude maya as the effect of ignorance,then where is this ignorance present??
What is the reason for this ignorance???Is it previous ignorance ???
If we have it in your way then there would be infinite cycles of ignorances!!!!!
You conclude that maya is the effect of ignorance.My question is how do you account for the origin of this ignorance by which maya exists???
Is it other ignorance????
Other possible question would be. In whom does this ignorance exist???
Brahaman!!!!!!This must be the answer,since there are no two beings in advaita..
If you accept that brahman has ignorance then all the efforts of vedas upanishads and everything would be futile since,everthing is declaring the glorious characters of the supreme!!!!