Katzpur said:
Was God also the translator? If so, why are there so many translations? Why not just one? Don't say they're all the same; that's obviously not the case. For instance, try having a discussion with a Roman Catholic about the meaning of the word "saint." Mention the fact that the KJV uses the word some 62 times in the New Testament alone and that the word clearly refers to as a disciple of Christ, as one of those who chose to follow Him. Your Catholic counterpart will deny that the word is even found in the Bible. (I know; I've had this discussion before.) Well, he'd be right. The word is not found in the Catholic Bible. See what I'm saying?
I suppose you're also convinced that it's complete. If so, perhaps you could tell me where to find the book of Samuel the Seer, the book of Jehu, or Paul's epistle to the Laodiceans. They were left out of the table of contents in my bible (the KJV).
Hi, Katzpur!
Good questions.
God, in a sense, translated the King James Bible. The reason I say that, is because He said in Psalm 12:7 that He would preserve His word. So if He did preserve it, then where is it? Well, it exists today in the form of the 1611 KJV bible. The reason I believe THAT is because the Greek language was extremely corrupted - thanks to Plato and friends.
They helped institute a new line of Greek language called Classical Greek, whereas the common people spoke Koine Greek. The Classical Greek is where all these NIV, NASB, TEC, etc come from ... as well as Strong's Concordance (which I like to call Wrong's Concordance).
Anyway the KJV comes to us via the Gothic Language, not the Greek Language, and God superintended it's transmission to us as He promised in Psalm 12:7.
I hope this clarifies!
p.s. As far as the other books you mentioned: that's my point. God made sure they weren't included in the KJV, because evidentally they were not inspired by Him to be written in the first place. (In other words, someone wrote them w/o the aid of the Holy Spirit).
I hope this makes sense!