Background to the question. Baha'allah claims to be the metaphoric son of Hassan Al-Askari (a). I'm making an analogy, can Mohammad (s) claim to be son of Jesus (a) and even linked to David (a) by being metaphoric son of Jesus (a) and descendant of David (a) from this angle? Say he argued he was a descendant of David (A) on this ground, would it make sense to you guys?
"Mohammad" is a descriptive used in the Koran, and means "praised one", and is used in reference to Isa son of Mary, which would be Yeshua. There is no complete version of the Koran prior to 100 years after the death of this supposed "Mohammad", and at this time, there are many non-aligning versions. The basic contents of the Koran were taken from prior Persian, Jewish, and Christian writings. The stories around this "Mohammad" came two centuries after some woman supposedly killed him and were written mostly by sons of Persia, mostly located in what is present day Iraq. The characters from which the narrative around this "Mohammad" were taken, came from individuals located in what was Persia, and is now Iraq. At the time of the supposed life of this "Mohammad", Mecca was a wilderness, and not a lush trading center full of fruit trees. Your "Mohammad" was a son of imagination in order to compete with the aura of the people of the book, the Jews. The writing on the inside of the old wall of the dome of the rock, refers to Isa (Yeshua), with regard to the false trinity doctrine.