How did Moses not sanctify God by striking the rock twice? That is very unclear. As there is no satisfactory expalnation why Moses was wrong I doubt this "conversation" was reported accurately after several hundred of oral transmaission.
It is still unclear how Moses betrayed God or not sanctify God. I use the same reasoning as above. Why wouldn't God be clear how Moses did not sanctify Him?
Moses took the fall, took the blame on behalf of the Hebrew people in my opinion. I don't expect you to agree with this. These discussions between people of different religions end up with disagreement 99% of the time.
Salutations!
ah, no problem. It
is clear what God wanted, and it
is clear how Moses deviated from it. All that's needed is a good translation and sticking to the text.
7 The Lord spoke to Moses, saying:
8 "Take the staff and assemble the congregation, you and your brother Aaron, and
speak to the rock in their presence so that it will give forth its water. You shall bring forth water for them from the rock and give the congregation and their livestock to drink."
9 Moses took the staff from before the Lord as He had commanded him.
10 Moses and Aaron assembled the congregation in front of the rock, and
he said to them, "Now listen, you rebels,
can we draw water for you from this rock?"
11 Moses raised his hand and
struck the rock with his staff twice, when an abundance of water gushed forth, and the congregation and their livestock drank.
12 The Lord said to Moses and Aaron, "Since
you did not have faith in Me to sanctify Me in the eyes of the children of Israel, therefore you shall not bring this assembly to the Land which I have given them.
OK, so, God tells Moses
- take the staff
- speak to the rock
- bring forth water
Instead Moses
- takes the staff
- speaks to the people
- claims to bring water using his own power
- hits the rock twice
So you can see, directly from the text, that Moses didn't follow God's instructions. Per verse 12, the
specific infraction which resulted in prohibiting him from entering the Holy Land was "not sanctifying God" which was when Moses spoke to the assembly "can WE bring water from this rock". That was the major fault, saying 'WE'.
There you go, pretty simple. Now, I'll note that there are at least 7 different interpretations that sages have come up with regarding this story. Each one posits different reasons for Moses' ban from the Holy Land. What I've relayed does not require interpretation, so it avoids the accusation "you're clinging to the interpretations of clergy".
OK, now on to the really interesting part of the discussion: How do we have confidence that this "conversation" was recorded accurately? Here are my reasons:
1) Over the past 3000 years, if there was deviation in the story, I would expect this to be reflected in multiple versions of the Torah. But there aren't different versions, the method employed for maintaining the accuracy, word-by-word, is amazing. And this has resulted in the ancient text being maintained in a single form throughout all these years.
2) Let's assume that the story has been corrupted, or changed, or there were multiple accounts of the story. It doesn't make sense to choose Deuteronomy 3 over Numbers 20 and Deuteronomy 32. It's a simple 2 to 1 comparisson. There's two matching explanations included in 2 different books, versus, 1 explanation in one book. Two of the explanations come from God, one from a prophet. Even if the author was unsure which parts of the story were correct and included them both, that means that neither explanation should be trusted ( not one chosen above the other ). Even if there were multiple authors, the two matching explanations corroborate each other.
3) There's another example of Moses' human failings in Exodus 4 immediately following the episode at the burning bush:
24 Now he was on the way, in an inn, that the Lord met him and sought to put him to death.
25 So Zipporah took a sharp stone and severed her son's foreskin and cast it to his feet, and she said, "For you are a bridegroom of blood to me."
26 So He released him. Then she said, "A bridegroom of blood concerning the circumcision."
Now, there's not a lot to go on here in the text. But it
does say explicitly that the "Lord sought to put him to death". So clearly Moses must have done something wrong. Since Moses was not put to death, and the only action taken mentioned in the story is a circumcision, it seems like the story is telling us, Moses had not circumsised his son in spite of the law ( God's will ) to do so. And that's a mistake, so here like in the story at the waters of meribah, we have Moses showing fallibility.
If we include this story with the other, now Moses' human flawed nature is reflected in 3 of the 5 books of Moses. And none of this is coming from interpretation. It's strictly from the text.