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Only in your dreams. So where does the bible speak about female homosexuality in both Romans 1 and/or in numerous passages in both testaments? Or is that just wishful thinking?
So why did Lot sexually assault his daughters after he tried to pimp them and mocked his sons-in-law (Gen 19), and is that because the ten commandments etc didn't apply to him since biblical morality is obviously just man made, including the ten commandments?
In other words, Jesus didn't claim to be a god or to be without sin, given that he didn't deny being a boozer (Matt 11:19) as condemned by Paul (1Cor 6:10), which was why he performed a conjuring trick with some previously hidden wine in order to irresponsibly make some already "well drunk" boozers even drunker instead of suggesting they drink the water instead to help sober up (John 2:1-10).
The bible doesn't say that it was wrong for Abraham to commit incest and adultery, given that the 10 commandments etc didn't apply to him. So presumably the Koran also says it was OK for Abraham to have a sexual relationship with his sister Sarah and commit adultery with Hagar.
To me - a homosexual is a person who engages in sexual acts with members of the same sex.
God commands that His children only have sexual relations within marriage.
The books in the Bible don't describe everything - because their purpose is not to be a repository for all knowledge.
Well - that chapter in Isaiah also claims that "All flesh is grass".
The Qur'an and the Bible are very different books. It is probably best not to assume that they say the same thing about something, but find out instead, regarding each case, if you want to know.
It doesn't matter what it means to you. It matters what medical science says it is. This is where a lot of the problem comes in: too many people who believe they're "authorities" because they "read the bible" or "believe in Jesus." There must be agreement as to what terms mean, and as to what social standards are. And that's not up to you.
God doesn't define marriage. Ever. The biblical writers define marriage. There's a difference. One is immutable. One isn't. We have to be very careful about what we term "immutable" or "God's will," when dealing with a diverse society and when we cannot know for sure just what "God's will" is. The biblical writers wrote from their own knowledge base and cultural perspective. Neither is shared by us. Therefore, probably not the best thing to declare that what you "believe" is immutable. Immutability in that context invariably ends up excluding some. That's not what God had in mind.
Paul clearly condemns some same-sex acts. We don't know specifically what acts they are, or in what context. Nor is it clear that those acts arise out of a homosexual orientation. Not all same-sex acts are homosexual acts. Are the acts loving? Committed? Consensual? Equitable? A method of expressing love and commitment to another human being? If so, many would define that as "marriage," and marriage is aces in God's book -- doesn't matter if the acts are heterosexual in nature or homosexual in nature.
Actually it is up to the people. If a group of people do not accept a definition for a term then there is no agreement and there's little you can do about it. For people with faith, science comes after faith. I.e. If there is a contradiction, one accepts what God commands and disregards what scientists say.
Do you think it is likely he didn't condemn all of them? Honestly?
Marriage is a legal contract that permits such 'methods'.
Which is why Abraham had a sexual relationship with his sister given that a biblical marriage is simply a personal agreement between two people to shack up together.
Wrong. Romans 1 says nothing at all about female homosexuals since they do not have anal sex, given that Romans 1:26-27 obviously describes anal sex of woman and men which Paul described as "vile" and "unseemly"
None of that changes the fact that the bible describes Earth as a flat immoveable disc, and describes the universe as a geo-centric dome-shaped tent attached at the circle of the horizon (Matt 4:8 Isaiah 40:22 Eccl 1:5). Nor does it change the fact that the bible does not describe Earth as a rotating globe orbiting the sun. Nor does the bible say that the universe is not geo-centric and is billions of years old.
Does the Koran say that it was OK for Abraham to have a sexual relationship with his sister Sarah and to commit adultery with Hagar. And what was the marriage contract which Abraham signed with his sister, and did they have a marriage celebrant and witnesses and a large wedding cake, or did they just agree to shack up together?
So where does the bible say anything about female homosexuality?
Does the Koran say that it is OK for women to have anal sex?
That is prohibited in Islam for everyone in all circumstances.
And will you be tolerant of them if they express same-sex desire and not a sexual desire for the opposite sex?
Which is why Paul described anal sex of women and men as "vile" and "unseemly" and said nothing at all about female homosexuality (Romans 1:26-27).
You’re trying to define people out of their humanity. That’s not How It Works.
I don’t think he was aware of all of them.
And marriage is legally open to homosexuals.