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Elohim means God or gods?

TashaN

Veteran Member
Premium Member
The form of the word Elohim, with the ending -im, is plural and masculine, but the construction is usually singular, i.e. it governs a singular verb or adjective when referring to the Hebrew god, but reverts to its normal plural when used of heathen divinities (Psalms 96:5; 97:7). There are many theories as to why the word is plural:

  • In one view, predominant among anthropomorphic monotheists, the word is plural in order to augment its meaning and form an abstraction meaning "Divine majesty".
  • Among orthodox Trinitarian Christian writers it is used as evidence for the dogma of the Holy Trinity.
  • In another view that is more common among both secular scholars and polytheists, the word's plurality reflects early Judaic polytheism. Originally meaning "the gods", or the "sons of El," the supreme being, the word may have been singularized by later monotheist priests who sought to replace worship of the many gods with their own patron god YHWH alone.
A plural noun governing a singular verb may be according to oldest usage. The gods form a heavenly assembly where they act as one. In this context, the Elohim may be a collective plural when the gods act in concert. Compare this to English headquarters, which is plural but governs a singular verb: there are many rooms or quarters, but they all serve one purpose. The meaning of Elohim therefore can mean one god, with many attributes.

The polytheist theory would also explain why there are three words built on the same stem: El, Elohim, and eloah. El, the father god, has many divine sons, who are known by the plural of his name, Elohim, or Els. Eloah, might then be used to differentiate each of the lesser gods from El himself.

While the words El, Elohim, and eloah are clearly related, with the word El being the stem, it is uncertain whether the word Elohim is derived from El through eloah. Moreover, the word eloah is arguably feminine. If this is true, some have suggested that the word Elohim is the masculine plural of a feminine noun, used as a singular. This would imply indeterminacy in both number and gender. However, this is speculative and confusing, although consistent with many Christian views of the Godhead.

Elohim in Islam

In the context of Islam, some scholars have speculated that the divine name Allahumma, used in the Qur'an as a variation of Allah, may be related to Elohim.



Elohim in Mormonism

In Mormonism, the word Elohim (also spelled Eloheim) usually refers specifically to God the Father, as a distinct being from Jesus. Mormons sometimes refer to Jesus as Jehovah (Yahweh), whom they consider to be the God of the Old Testament. See also: Godhead (Mormonism).



Elohim in Raelianism

Raelians claim that in 1973, a French journalist named Rael was contacted by a visitor from another planet who informed him, among other things, that the word in question means "those who came from the sky."


I got this from this website which i used as a dictionary:
http://www.answers.com/elohim&r=67

but i'm really confused about it because in the bible we can read Elohim as God, sometimes god and even sometimes gods so how the people who translate knew whether Elohim at that particular verse means God, god or gods? :confused:
 

Linus

Well-Known Member
Correct me If I'm wrong, but I'm pretty sure that the word Elohim has been translated several different ways, and none of them (or, at least, very few) being God (Jehovah). Most translations I have seen, render Elohim as something like kings, princes, judges, rulers, etc.
 

Deut 13:1

Well-Known Member
If you're talking about literal it's gods. But lets look at Genesis 1:1

Be're**** bara Elohim et hashmayim ve-et ha-aretz.

If you wrote "the gods" - it would be incorrect, there is no "the" there. In addition, the word itself "gods" is indeed plural, but is being used extensively throughout the Hebrew Bible to describe a single god. The verb "bara" - created - is in its singular form. It's like you would write "they goes" instead of "they go" or "he goes".


Shalom,
Binyamin
 

michel

Administrator Emeritus
Staff member
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Elohim

Wkipedia says:-
Elohim (אלהים) is a Hebrew word related to deity, but whose exact significance is often disputed. It is the third word in the Hebrew text of Genesis and occurs frequently throughout the Hebrew Bible. In some cases (e.g. Ex. 3:4 ...Elohim called unto him out of the midst of the bush...), is generally understood to denote the God of Israel but from a neutral point of view there is no evidence proving that this originally meant one rather than several acting in accord. In other cases (e.g. Ex. 20:3 Thou shalt have no other gods before me.), it refers to the polytheistic notion of multiple gods. In still other cases (e.g. Gen. 6:2 the sons of Elohim saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them for wives...), the meaning is not clear from the text, but may refer to powerful beings.-(see the link above for the full article.)
 

Deut 13:1

Well-Known Member
michel said:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Elohim

Wkipedia says:-
Elohim (אלהים) is a Hebrew word related to deity, but whose exact significance is often disputed. It is the third word in the Hebrew text of Genesis and occurs frequently throughout the Hebrew Bible. In some cases (e.g. Ex. 3:4 ...Elohim called unto him out of the midst of the bush...), is generally understood to denote the God of Israel but from a neutral point of view there is no evidence proving that this originally meant one rather than several acting in accord. In other cases (e.g. Ex. 20:3 Thou shalt have no other gods before me.), it refers to the polytheistic notion of multiple gods. In still other cases (e.g. Gen. 6:2 the sons of Elohim saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them for wives...), the meaning is not clear from the text, but may refer to powerful beings.-(see the link above for the full article.)
Wkipedia is a good source, but their translations are not that great.

Shemos (Exodus) 20:3 You shall not recognize the gods of others in my presence.

In reference to Elohim, my personal opinion is that it implied rulership. For example, Shemos (Exodus) 4:16 ...and you shall be his (Elohim) master. I don't think Wkipedia imples that that it should be translated as... and you shall be HIS masterS.

But hey, that's my opinion and the opinion of the sages, you're welcome to ignore them or adhere to them. :)
 

Lintu

Active Member
In Torah study, we have been taught that the use of plural is an augmentation. Jews are not anthropomorphic monotheists, though.
 

greatcalgarian

Well-Known Member
The first chapter of Genesis, for instance, in Hebrew, tells us, in verses one and two, "As to origin, created the gods (Elohim) these skies (or air or clouds) and this earth. . . And a wind moved upon the face of the waters." Here we have the opening of a polytheistic fable of creation, but, so strongly convinced were the English translators that the ancient Hebrews must have been originally monotheistic that they rendered the above, as follows: "In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth. . . . And the spirit of God (!) moved upon the face of the waters."



It is now generally conceded that some one (nobody pretends to know who) at some time (nobody pretends to know exactly when), copied two creation myths on the same leather roll, one immediately following the other. About one hundred years ago, it was discovered by Dr. Astruc, of France, that from Genesis ch. i, v. 1 to Genesis ch. ii, v. 4, is given one complete account of creation, by an author who always used the term "the gods" (Elohim), in speaking of the fashioning of the universe, mentioning it altogether thirty-four times, while, in Genesis ch. ii, v. 4, to the end of chapter iii, we have a totally different narrative, by an author of unmistakably different style, who uses the term "Iahveh of the gods" twenty times, but "Elohim" only three times. The first author, evidently, attributes creation to a council of gods, acting in concert, and seems never to have heard of Iahveh. The second attributes creation to Iahveh, a tribal god of ancient Israel, but represents Iahveh as one of two or more gods, conferring with them (in Genesis ch. xiii, V. 22) as to the danger of man's acquiring immortality.
http://www.undelete.org/library/library0041b.html#top

The Woman Bible by By Elizabeth Cady Stanton and the Revising Committee appeared to have explain God, Gods, and god, gods pretty well.
Though the point in that chapter is to show that Man and Woman were created at the same time :)
 

jonny

Well-Known Member
The term Elohim is commonly used in the LDS religion to refer to God the Father. In my religion classes they have always taught that the Hebrew word was plural.
 

Deut 13:1

Well-Known Member
greatcalgarian said:
http://www.undelete.org/library/library0041b.html#top

The Woman Bible by By Elizabeth Cady Stanton and the Revising Committee appeared to have explain God, Gods, and god, gods pretty well.
Though the point in that chapter is to show that Man and Woman were created at the same time :)
There are not two creation stories. Your bible is wrong, I'm sorry no one explained them to you earlier. Any bible that supports two different creation stories needs some series work. That's all I'll say on the subject. If you don't understand this, make a new thread about it and PM it to me and I'll drop in, but let me just reiterate anyone who thinks there are 2 different creation stories is seriously lacking in biblical knowledge and understanding.

I also don't agree with their translation, if you're going for a LITERAL translation then it's, "First, G-ds (plural) created (singular) the heavens and the earth."

And that's if you're doing an EXACT literal translation. Be're**** coming from the root word Rishon (first). That's why it's not "In the beginning". Anyways, I can write pages on this, so make a new thread if you're very curious.
 

Deut 13:1

Well-Known Member
jonny said:
The term Elohim is commonly used in the LDS religion to refer to God the Father. In my religion classes they have always taught that the Hebrew word was plural.
It's plural but it's similar to the word, "Bara" no Hebrew speaking person uses the word today. It's understood that "Bara" means to create out of absolute nothingness. Like wise, Elohim is a plural, but is used throughout the entire Bible to designate one G-d.
 

jonny

Well-Known Member
Binyamin said:
It's plural but it's similar to the word, "Bara" no Hebrew speaking person uses the word today. It's understood that "Bara" means to create out of absolute nothingness. Like wise, Elohim is a plural, but is used throughout the entire Bible to designate one G-d.
This sounds like you are twisting to make the scriptures mean what you want them to mean. The question was does Elohim mean God or Gods. The answer is that it means Gods, but you interpret the plural words as being singular. If they wanted it to be singular why didn't they write it that way?
 

Deut 13:1

Well-Known Member
jonny said:
This sounds like you are twisting to make the scriptures mean what you want them to mean. The question was does Elohim mean God or Gods. The answer is that it means Gods, but you interpret the plural words as being singular. If they wanted it to be singular why didn't they write it that way?
I'm not twisting anything, throughout the entire bible Elohim is used and it's understood that it means One G-d, Hashem. Is the word itself in the plural form? Yes, look above, as I clearly and articuately stated several times, that it's in the plural. It's like the word in English, deer. I ran over the deer. (How many am I talking about?)
 

TashaN

Veteran Member
Premium Member
once i read an article from a Jew claiming that the first verse of John when they mention Elohim in the english translation they didn't translate as it appears in the hebrew one but according to thier own understanding.

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God". (John 1:1)

So, anyone has the hebrew one so we make sure of it? because the Jew scholar said the first God is different than the second one.
 

EnhancedSpirit

High Priestess
The Truth said:
once i read an article from a Jew claiming that the first verse of John when they mention Elohim in the english translation they didn't translate as it appears in the hebrew one but according to thier own understanding.

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God".(John 1:1)

So, anyone has the hebrew one so we make sure of it? because the Jew scholar said the first God is different than the second one.
Well, this was not ever in Hebrew, it's New Testament. Both words are from the Greek word Theos. But, I do want to point out the importance of this verse. The word is God. We create our own reality with our words as well. First the image(imaginings), then the word. The spoken word is an application of a thought and this is how we create, as God did, in the beginning.
 

Jayhawker Soule

-- untitled --
Premium Member
jonny said:
If they wanted it to be singular why didn't they write it that way?
Who knows. When confronted by such a mystery, we can do little more than raise our cup and proclaim: L'Chaim! ;)
 

TashaN

Veteran Member
Premium Member
EnhancedSpirit said:
Well, this was not ever in Hebrew, it's New Testament. Both words are from the Greek word Theos. But, I do want to point out the importance of this verse. The word is God. We create our own reality with our words as well. First the image(imaginings), then the word. The spoken word is an application of a thought and this is how we create, as God did, in the beginning.
OOhh ya right NT wasn't in hebrew but by the way, Whta is the word that "supposed to be" there before God?

I mean what is the meaning of that the word was there at first in the begining, the word was with God and the word was God?

How comes that the word was with God but he is the word itself?

Does that means like when i say:

He was there, and he was with me and he is The Truth (me)? :confused:
 

greatcalgarian

Well-Known Member
EnhancedSpirit said:
Well, this was not ever in Hebrew, it's New Testament. Both words are from the Greek word Theos. But, I do want to point out the importance of this verse. The word is God. We create our own reality with our words as well. First the image(imaginings), then the word. The spoken word is an application of a thought and this is how we create, as God did, in the beginning.
So that is how we created God? :biglaugh:
 

Halcyon

Lord of the Badgers
Binyamin said:
There are not two creation stories. Your bible is wrong, I'm sorry no one explained them to you earlier. Any bible that supports two different creation stories needs some series work. That's all I'll say on the subject. If you don't understand this, make a new thread about it and PM it to me and I'll drop in, but let me just reiterate anyone who thinks there are 2 different creation stories is seriously lacking in biblical knowledge and understanding.
First, there are two creation storiesa, and they are contradictory - go read your Hebrew of Christian bible. Genesis 1 and Genesis 2 are two different variations on the same story.

Second, Elohim is a plural word and it does mean gods. Just as cherubim is the plural of cherub and seraphim is the plural of seraph. This is backed up by the most obscure sentences in Genesis e.g. "make man in our image", a singular God would say my image, not our image.
 

Jayhawker Soule

-- untitled --
Premium Member
Halcyon said:
..., a singular God would say my image, not our image.
He told you that? The Royal 'we' is well attested. Did your "singular God" somewhere declare that s/he would avoid such usage?
 
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