Linking together pedophilia (which is actually not the same as child rapists, everyone knows that pedophilia refers to the attraction, it merely includes potential actions) to homosexuality is the logical fallacy known as false equivalence. You might view those two things as sinful, fine. But it is rather insulting to use as an example nonetheless.No, Tom. That is not true. (Sigh)
I'm only responding to this comment before your other ones because it popped up as "New Alert" while I was online earlier and it drew my attention - and because it is completely false.
I will give a summary list of posts and then an explanation.
@SkepticThinker began this whole "me comparing pedophilia to homosexuality" false narrative when he pointed out in Post #352 that I had "brought up" pedophilia (even though I had only mentioned an attraction to children and not pedophilia) in my initial post.
@9-10ths_Penguin responded to this by saying, "It's kind of a big red flag that consent and respect don't factor into what @JesusKnowsYou considers acceptable and unacceptable sexual relationships." in Post #353.
I responded to @SkepticThinker in Post #359 by sharing that the only reason I had brought up an attraction to children was to prove that people born with a certain presupposition (or "weakness") are not destined to act on that weakness (i.e. an attraction to children).
I also responded to @9-10ths_Penguin in Post #360 by claiming that I would consider any sexual behavior outside the boundaries God has set up (only between a man and woman who are married) to be inappropriate and that no one is destined to commit sexual sin.
I also said that, "It is not my fault that same-sex attraction and attraction to children both fall under the same category of sexual weakness and sexual sin" and I then claimed that I felt like he owed me an apology.
That last one caused @9-10ths_Penguin Post #361 to reiterate his earlier claim that "factors like consent and respect don't matter in your determination of what's appropriate and inappropriate expressions of sexuality" and he then claimed that I had treated others with "disrespect"(without explaining exactly how I did that).
He then refused to apologize to me and said, "the people who deserve an apology are the ones you compared to pedophiles."
@Jainarayan , @SomeRandom and @Shadow Wolf gave his post (#361) a "Winner" vote.
The next two posts were from @SkepticThinker (#362 and 363) where he said that I had tried to "demonize" homosexuals (even though I never "demonized" those attracted to children, so that made no sense) and then he made the claim (without evidence) that me having my beliefs somehow meant that I mistreat people.
@Jainarayan gave that post (#362) a "Winner" vote.
@SkepticThinker then responded to @9-10ths_Penguin original post (#353) (where he claimed that I did not consider "consent" or "respect") with a "Right?" (then a "shrugging shoulders" emoji) in Post #363.
Then this leads us to your response in Post #365 @columbus where you claimed that, "And furthermore, preaching this sort of thing causes a great deal of damage. Particularly when preached to young people, before they even know they're gay. So I put your preaching in a category similar to pedophilia."
@SkepticThinker and @Jainarayan gave your post a "Winner" vote.
Then @Shadow Wolf claimed in Post #370 that I owed an apology, "To people such as several of my friends whom you have compared to pedophiles and zoophiliacs."
@SkepticThinker and @Jainarayan gave that post a "Like" vote.
Everyone on here either posted that my "comparing" pedophilia to homosexuality (I never did) meant that I was comparing those who commit homosexual acts with those who rape children or they voted for a post that claimed thus.
Everyone on here also used the word "pedophile" to describe "those who rape children" and "pedophilia" to describe "the practice of raping children".
None of you used those words to describe a person who was attracted to children or the practice of being attracted to children.
You all associated rape with these terms.
When @9-10ths_Penguin discussed my supposed "comparison" he claimed that it meant that I did not consider "consent" or "respect" when I determined what was appropriate "expressions of sexuality".
So, obviously @9-10ths_Penguin does not define pedophilia as simply "an attraction to children", but as "the practice of raping children".
Being attracted to someone does not require "consent" and is not an "expression of sexuality" and any talk of lack of "consent" when discussing "expressions of sexuality" is a reference to rape.
@9-10ths_Penguin claimed that I had "compared" homosexuals to those who rape children (pedophiles), or in other words, I had compared those who commit homosexual acts with those who rape children.
@Jainarayan , @SomeRandom and @Shadow Wolf gave his post a "Winner" - signifying that they agree with his claim.
@SkepticThinker also agreed with @9-10ths_Penguin claim when he said "Right?" in reply.
Then you @columbus by claiming that me sharing my opinion would cause "a great deal of damage" that was "similar to pedophilia" were making the claim that "pedophilia" means raping children, not simply an attraction to children.
To all of this I said in Post #372,
"I did "bring up" an attraction to children (not pedophilia) in a list of inappropriate sexual attractions, but after my list I immediately said,
"Before you flip your lid, I'm not trying to say that all of these attractions are exactly the same, but depending on who you ask people will draw a line somewhere as to what is or is not appropriate sexual behavior."
I only brought up the inappropriate sexual weakness of an attraction to children to help build my argument that just because someone suffers from a weakness, they are not destined to indulge or act on that weakness.
Someone who has an attraction to children is not destined to rape children. They have a choice."
And,
"I do believe that both an attraction to the same-sex and an attraction to children are inappropriate - but that does not mean that I consider the sins of homosexuality and pedophilia to be the same.
I also believe that shoplifting and murder are wrong - you would argue that my claiming so means that I regard both of these crimes to be the same? The same severity?
I never compared homosexuality to pedophilia. I pointed out that both of these sins come from an inappropriate sexual attraction, but I never claimed that they were the same.
Someone who suffers from the weakness of an attraction to children is not destined to engage in sexual behavior with children. They have the choice to resist their urges.
If they decide to indulge in their weakness and act on their urges and engage in sexual behavior with children - they have committed rape (because children cannot give consent) - and it is my belief that that is a crime that should be punishable be either castration or execution.
I do not believe that any consensual sexual behavior between adults conducted in private (no matter how inappropriate) is a crime nor worthy of any punishment."
Even though I never compared pedophilia to homosexuality - everyone mentioned in this thread claimed that I did - and they all claimed that "pedophilia" meant "raping children".
This was a false narrative that you all ran with and spun out of control.
Also, @Mestemia - why are you giving this a "Winner" vote?
Why haven't you explained to me why you decided not to defend me when @Jainarayan asked me to justify my beliefs?
The implication being that a person who experiences targeted lust or attraction towards someone who is unable to give fully informed consent (which results in every single potential scenario of fulfilling the desires physically being inherently abusive towards the minor, except self love I guess) is in any way shape or form comparable to a person with an adult sexual orientation that does not necessarily need abuse to function as a physical relationship. Ie homosexuality.
It doesn’t bolster your argument, if anything it’s entirely detrimental as most people don’t consider logical fallacies to be rational.