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יְהוֺשׁוּעַ or יְהוֺשֻׁעַ ?
37818
Active Member
Deuteronomy 3:21, ". . . And I commanded Joshua at that time, saying, Thine eyes have seen all that the LORD your God hath done unto these two kings: so shall the LORD do unto all the kingdoms whither thou passest. . . ."
I checked Biblica Hebraica there is no variant shown for Hebrew spelling יְהוֺשׁוּעַ for Joshua.
Judges 2:7, ". . . And the people served the LORD all the days of Joshua, and all the days of the elders that outlived Joshua, who had seen all the great works of the LORD, that he did for Israel. . . ."
Again, here I checked Biblica Hebraica for the Hebrew spelling יְהוֺשׁוּעַ for Joshua. No variant shown.
I have no reason to believe that Hebrew spelling is not the original inerrant spelling given by God in just those two places.
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You'll likely have to wait till Shabbat is over for our Hebrew-speaking members to chime in.
rosends
Well-Known Member
Here is one explanation for the malei (full) spelling.
Why is "Yehoshua" spelled with a full Vav in Devarim 3:21?
Why is "Yehoshua" spelled with a full Vav in Devarim 3:21?
37818
Active Member
God spoke to Moses in his language. And what was from God to Moses by Moses was written in the Hebrew.
Deuteronomy 27:26-28:1, ". . . Cursed be he that confirmeth not all the words of this law to do them. And all the people shall say, Amen. And it shall come to pass, if thou shalt hearken diligently unto the voice of the LORD thy God, to observe and to do all his commandments which I command thee this day, that the LORD thy God will set thee on high above all nations of the earth: . . ."
Now according to the words of Jesus of Nazareth, Matthew 5:18, "For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled." The "jot" is the Hebrew "yod" and the "tittle" are the horns on the Hebrew letters in the Hebrew words.
The unique spelling יְהוֺשׁוּעַ for Joshua is used only twice. The two statements have something in common:
Deuteronomy 3:21, ". . . And I commanded Joshua at that time, saying, Thine eyes have seen all that the LORD your God hath done unto these two kings: so shall the LORD do unto all the kingdoms whither thou passest. . . ."
Judges 2:7, ". . . And the people served the LORD all the days of Joshua, and all the days of the elders that outlived Joshua, who had seen all the great works of the LORD, that he did for Israel. . . ."
The first is what God told Joshua. The second is in the obituary given for Joshua, Judges 2:7-8.
37818
Active Member
According to The Analytical Hebrew and Chaldee Lexicon 1850 by Benjamin Davidon (Zondervan 1970)
יְהוֺשׁוּעַ is the defective reading.
יְהוֺשֻׁעַ . . . defect. יְהוֺשׁוּעַ (q. v.) page 300.
There is no evidence that יְהוֺשֻׁעַ reading ever existed in Deuteronomy 3:21 or in the 2nd reading in Judged 2:7.
Other than, you know, the fact that Jews have maintained this spelling for centuries.
37818
Active Member
Yet you knew which verses the OP was referring to...curious.
37818
Active Member
The OP did not provide the two references. I had to use MySword App and a Hebrew text with the Strong's number verse by verse to find them.
37818
Active Member
What I discovered:
Deuteronomy 3:21, ". . . Joshua . . . Thine eyes have seen all that the LORD your God hath done unto these two kings: so shall the LORD do unto all the kingdoms whither thou passest. . . ."
Judges 2:7, ". . . Joshua, who had seen all the great works of the LORD, that he did for Israel. . . ."
Not an accidental quiencidence.
Deuteronomy 3:21, ". . . Joshua . . . Thine eyes have seen all that the LORD your God hath done unto these two kings: so shall the LORD do unto all the kingdoms whither thou passest. . . ."
Judges 2:7, ". . . Joshua, who had seen all the great works of the LORD, that he did for Israel. . . ."
Not an accidental quiencidence.
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I'm sorry, but I don't understand. You claim there's no spelling of Yehoshua with a second Vav - so how'd you come up with the correct verses?
37818
Active Member
Again using the mysword app with a Hebrew text and with Srong's numbers. I searched for H3091 until I came upon the יְהוֹשׁ֣וּעַ spelling.
rosends
Well-Known Member
so then there IS a spelling with the second vav. Your earlier statement was "there is no variant shown for Hebrew spelling יְהוֺשׁוּעַ for Joshua".
Excellent. So why, as @rosends asked as well, you implied earlier that such a spelling does not exist?
37818
Active Member
No and yes. I never said that יְהוֺשׁוּעַ did not exist. Those two verses, that use יְהוֺשׁוּעַ, have no cases were that spelling is not used. Those two verses have no known variants from יְהוֺשׁוּעַ.
37818
Active Member
I never said or even meant any such thing. I am arguing יְהוֺשׁוּעַ is the original reading those two places.
37818
Active Member
Which was my argument.