Evidence for “a god” at John 10:33

rational experiences · Aug 17, 2020

Science said GOD One O a circle/cycle owner is of no beginning and also of no end.

When it claims and God is both the Alpha and Omega, when Alpha is a variant to the Omega, then that statement would make you stop and think.

What prophesising and also proselyting was in science...using fake numbers not a WHOLE number, mass as ONE, what God stone as mass fused or SION was stated to be.

S and ION says science is fusion.BibleGateway - Keyword Search: false god
an atom or molecule with a net electric charge due to the loss or gain of one or more electrons.

Human males, as humans are the scientist self, against natural, they own artificial prophecy, not using a whole number.

Only one is a whole number. Other numbers to add imposes to age and to age means to make old, when old is already owned, evolution O by mass presence.

So they knowingly tried to give Earth by a thesis a double age, which would mean to destroy the One O God that they lived on...for O one is only of One age, evolution.

architecture
a spiral scroll characteristic of Ionic capitals and also used in Corinthian and composite capitals.
synonyms:
loop · twist · turn · curl · hoop ·
[more]
a deep-water marine mollusc with a thick colourful spiral shell which is prized by collectors.

ADJECTIVE

forming a spiral curve or curves.
"a volute capital"

The volute teaching/preaching about O one, mass and stone. As a thesis about where One came from as the stone.

It never was discussing what came after stone...for nothing came after stone...actually.

1010101010101010 said 1 was held in the spatial void cooled/held 0 nothing, if you tried to remove 1, then only nothing would exist afterwards.

So you were self taught the law of relativity, NEVER change the presence of the whole number 1 and only 1....no number past one.

Yet science the false prophet, number addition, claimed, I can name mass, I can give it factoring, which is adding what was never added, ONE whole and natural evolution of mass ONE or 1.

What the false prophet is....there is no such status as addition. O stone is held as one and also 1 0 zero. Not 10, it is one and zero.

The scientist of the false prophecy said God is 10.

Therefore you then read what the false prophet science said the womb did to the Earth in God is 10, as a fake female quote.

Addition. Add it to ion he says, being false. + the cross to add therefore became his own symbol for why his male human life on One in space was sacrificed, as the real science occult teaching to self. Science is a liar.

The coded message, a Satanic message for using addition said to my life, female............as the Mother of the ownership of the baby life continuance the ovah/ovum/ova/ovary. H, terrestrial extra magnetism in the terrestrial, radiation release sacrificed the life of the holy baby........stated

L I A R.....reversal notification advice R A I L.

A prophetic song was given to me in a psychic gypsy reading I was given...that said American Pie was a warning. In the son G it said and the 3 men I admired the most, the Father, son and the Holy Ghost, they caught the last train for the coast the day the music died.

YoursTrue · Aug 17, 2020

Oeste said:
No, it's actually the Watchtower that claims Jesus was making himself "a god", not the Jews. As I've already pointed out, there is no charge of blasphemy inherent with making yourself "a god", so there' absolutely no reason why these Temple Jews would have picked up stones.

He was accused of blasphemy, and you don't blaspheme if you simply claim you're "a god".

He also says that for Christians there is but one God. This makes any so-called god a false god.

No, it does not. The Almighty God is God of Gods. He is ot the God of dead gods. That would be foolish. As has been pointed out to you, you must take things in context. Jesus had a God. And has a God. He called his Father his God.
The Cambridge Bible for Schools and Colleges comments about the expression "God of gods, and Lord of lords". It's a Hebrew idiom for the highest God and Lord.
I'm not asking you to believe that, but I am in agreement with their assessment of the expression God of gods and Lord of lords. It's an expression referring to the HIGHEST GOD AND LORD.

Oeste · Aug 17, 2020

YoursTrue said:
No, it does not. The Almighty God is God of Gods. He is ot the God of dead gods. That would be foolish. As has been pointed out to you, you must take things in context. Jesus had a God. And has a God. He called his Father his God.
The Cambridge Bible for Schools and Colleges comments about the expression "God of gods, and Lord of lords". It's a Hebrew idiom for the highest God and Lord.
I'm not asking you to believe that, but I am in agreement with their assessment of the expression God of gods and Lord of lords. It's an expression referring to the HIGHEST GOD AND LORD.

Are you still referring to John 10:33?

Were trying to decide which is the better translation:

We are not stoning you for any good work,” they replied, “but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God.”
or
We are not stoning you for any good work,” they replied, “but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be a god.”

YoursTrue · Aug 18, 2020

Oeste said:
Are you still referring to John 10:33?

Were trying to decide which is the better translation:

We are not stoning you for any good work,” they replied, “but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God.”
or
We are not stoning you for any good work,” they replied, “but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be a god.”

Generally in reference to what the word god means. The interlinear says theon could be God or "a" God. Jesus said he had a God. Perhaps I'll go into more detail later. Gnite.

Soapy · Aug 18, 2020

YoursTrue said:
Generally in reference to what the word god means. The interlinear says theon could be God or "a" God. Jesus said he had a God. Perhaps I'll go into more detail later. Gnite.

People.... ‘GOD’ is a TITLE that just means (like) ‘MIGHTY ONE’, ‘Greatest’, ‘Most Divine’, ‘Most powerful’, ‘worshipful’ (notice the small ‘w’!) ... all within CONTEXT.

The ‘GREATEST’ among a group is ‘THE GOD (single) of that group’ (for instance). And if it is a large group of similars then one among them is ‘GOD (single) of all amongst those in the group who are A GOD (many!!) of THEIR OWN CONTEXTUAL group.

The Holy Angels were said to be ‘Gods’.. they were HEROIC - but in no way were they THE ALMIGHTY GOD, who CREATED THEM... nothing created can be greater than HIM who created IT.

The ENTITY behind the TITLE (‘God’) must be viewed IN CONTEXT.

Satan is indeed, ‘GOD’ of this system of things... (the wretchedness of sinfulness). He is the GREATEST of those in SIN (do you see the context??)

The HEROES among MEN who received YHWH’s words and followed the Spirit of the word, YHWH called them ‘GODS’... What is the context....?

Even YHWH himself did not DENY that OTHERS are called ‘Gods’... and the Apostles also stated that there were so-called ‘Gods’ in the world YET even so, they were to believe that there is ONLY ONE WHO IS THE ALMIGHTY GOD ... which is different from the Pagans and the Heathens who believed there were MANY ‘almighty gods’ in their belief ideology.

It is SIMPLE... stop thinking that ‘GOD’ is a UNIQUE WORD for YHWH... it is not!!! ‘GOD’ is a TITLE applied to anyone or thing IN CONTEXT ...
In OUR IDEOLOGY WE BELIEVE in only one superior and Worshipful (‘W’) entity, our SOLE DEITY whose NAME He gave us as “YHWH”.

As such, we understand that there can be NO OTHER WORSHIPFUL ONE BUT YHWH... therefore ....

Jesus DID NOT CALL HIMSELF ‘Gods nor ‘A God’
John 1:... does not refer to ‘A God’ wherein the verse says: ‘The word was God’... it simply means:

‘YHWH’s word was MONUMENTAL, GLORIOUS, MIGHTY, MAJESTIC...’

‘In the beginning YHWH spoke THE MIGHTY WORD that created all things into the limited and bounded physical world out of the unlimited and unbounded spirit world. And sin came into the world through one man and so YHWH’s word ALSO spoke of a SAVIOUR from among men - a MESSIAH (as prophesied at Isaiah 42:1)... IN THE PROGRESS OF TIME YHWH’s spoken word concerning the messiah PUT ON FLESH (came to be in fullness - in real... do you guys not understand ‘put on flesh’!!)

So Jesus, that messiah, was NOT GOD (YHWH) nor was he ‘A GOD’, but as he said, “I only said I am the SON of YHWH God’ .... ‘that YHWH God is my Father’!!!

The Jews ERRONEOUSLY idolised a Son as being EQUAL TO HIS FATHER... AND since they understood ‘Father’ as being YHWH GOD, they took Jesus to mean that he was EQUAL TO GOD...
But MORE ... being equal to God (aahhhh!!!!) meant somehow that HE WAS GOD.... (aaaahhh!)

Why can’t you guys see that this is CRAZY...

There is nothing that is EQUAL to something AND IS THAT THING IT IS EQUAL TO....!!!

Moreover, trinity says Jesus GAVE UP BEING GOD to come as man... so how is Jesus supposed to be claiming to be God at the same time that trinity states he STOPPED BEING GOD...?

p.s. why do Trinitarians deny their own ideology when they are found out!!!

Soapy · Aug 18, 2020

YoursTrue said:
Generally in reference to what the word god means. The interlinear says theon could be God or "a" God. Jesus said he had a God. Perhaps I'll go into more detail later. Gnite.

YoursTrue, you are right about “The God” and “a God” because “God” is NOT THE PERSON.

It is a the TITLE APPLIED to an entity... therefore, yes, there can be ‘The God’ which is AN EXPLICIT entity that is so, AND there is ‘A GOD’ which is NON-SPECIFIC (referring to one among many of the same).

It is clear that Christian belief sustains the first, ‘The God’ in reference to our Deity. Our Deity, our GOD, tells us plainly that we are to believe in HIM ALONE AS THEIR (Jews / Israelites) ONLY GOD... and that in proof, ‘There is no other GOD beside(s?) HIM...’
This, He says, because Pagan tribe around the Israelites were worshipping GODS-a-plenty... YHWH told his favoured nation to worship Him as their only God who creates, maintains, sustains, punishes, rewards, holifies, and destroys at His own pleasure with righteousness, and mercy, with anger and with love (p.s. Love of a person could mean destroying an arm of the loved one if it were cancerous!!!!)

So, please, set the others straight in your otherwise excellent posts : ‘God’ is a TITLE applied to the worshipped deity of which Christian have only one... so in no way was Jesus nor any Apostle advocating that Jesus was ‘A God’ nor that ‘word of God’ meant ‘Jesus’, per se, but rather that Jesus TO THE WORD CARRIED OUT YHWH’s WORD** ... which the very DEFINITION OF “Son of the Father” :

“He who does the works of the Father”
“ALL who follow the Spirit of the Father are SONS [...] of the Father!”

(** “Father, I have given them THE WORD you gave to me to give to them - and they [the apostles] have received it ...” (John 17:8)
“The revelation from Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants...” (Rev 1:1)

Iymus · Aug 18, 2020

Hockeycowboy said:
Almost every version of John 10:33 that I’ve checked, says “God”...that the Jews were saying that Jesus was implying that he was God.

Is this accurate?

I suspect one would have to read at least from John 10:27 with an emphasis on verse 28 and 30 to decipher verse 33.

Eternal life is of the Most High being the Originator; so for someone to mention giving eternal life they either have to receive that power from the Originator or be the Originator.

Joh 10:28 And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand.

Joh 10:30 I and my Father are one.

Possible Interpretation by Jews and why they picked up stone : Giving Eternal Life and Being one with Who Eternal Life is of ? Would that not negate I Am That I Am and make him We Are That We Are? Would this not be blasphemy?

Perhaps something to consider

Soapy · Aug 18, 2020

Iymus said:
I suspect one would have to read at least from John 10:27 with an emphasis on verse 28 and 30 to decipher verse 33.

Eternal life is of the Most High being the Originator; so for someone to mention giving eternal life they either have to receive that power from the Originator or be the Originator.

Joh 10:28 And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand.

Joh 10:30 I and my Father are one.

Possible Interpretation by Jews and why they picked up stone : Giving Eternal Life and Being one with Who Eternal Life is of ? Would that not negate I Am That I Am and make him We Are That We Are? Would this not be blasphemy?

Perhaps something to consider

Jesus giving eternal life refers to the last days when Jesus JUDGES mankind. He will grant those who he deems worthy, ‘Eternal Life’ in Paradise.

Jesus is GRANTED ‘To have life in him’ (the ability to raise up the dead to eternal life and destroy those deemed unworthy - just as the Father has...

‘The Father loves the son and has granted him ...’

YoursTrue · Aug 18, 2020

Oeste said:
Are you still referring to John 10:33?

Were trying to decide which is the better translation:

We are not stoning you for any good work,” they replied, “but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God.”
or
We are not stoning you for any good work,” they replied, “but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be a god.”

In the meantime there are different translations either from the Greek or Hebrew, depending on what translator chooses. In another meantime, the word theon, according to what I read can be God or...a God. Jesus never ever claimed to be God. But they said he was MAKING HIMSELF to be God. Or..a God. Either way the question is, WHY WOULD THEY SAY THAT? And...did he agree? Did he make himself to be God or a God? The more I look at it, the more interesting it becomes.

Soapy · Aug 18, 2020

YoursTrue said:
In the meantime there are different translations either from the Greek or Hebrew, depending on what translator chooses. In another meantime, the word theon, according to what I read can be God or...a God. Jesus never ever claimed to be God. But they said he was MAKING HIMSELF to be God. Or..a God. Either way the question is, WHY WOULD THEY SAY THAT? And...did he agree? Did he make himself to be God or a God? The more I look at it, the more interesting it becomes.

The ‘making yourself God’ is not truthful... it is trinitarianism.

You might analyse the wording till eternity comes but since it is not true that they said this then no sense will ever come from it.

Consider these things:

Jesus QUERIED why they thought he had BLASPHEMED
The Jew’s claim was that Jesus had called YHWH his Father
Jesus told them that being the Son of God did not make him a spiritual god because YHWH himself had called other men of renown in the past who received his word and acted on it, ‘gods’. So if YHWH called others ‘Gods’ then how much less is it that he, Jesus, was not blaspheming by calling himself the son of God.
The Jews claimed back (somehow!!!) that being son of god meant being equal to god - and being equal to god meant BEING GOD!
Jesus told them that son of god simply meant he was ‘Doing the works of the Father’... and if they didn’t believe he was who he said he was then at least believe in the great works that he, Jesus was doing.
Scriptures itself says, ‘ALL WHO FOLLOW THE SPIRIT OF GOD ARE SONS [...] of God’... Jesus was doing exactly that..!

The point of this all was that the Jews did not believe this pious simple human being was the ‘WARRIOR MESSIAH’ that they were expecting. They thought the messiah would come and relieve them of the tyrant of the Romans. When Jesus came preaching peace and love thine enemy they were angrily amazed. Even the great miracles Jesus performed did not afford Jesus an ear from them (the majority) but in fact, this had already been prophesied.....!!!!

Read my previous posts: ‘God’ simply is a TITLE that is applied to a Deity (THE ONE AND ONLY DEITY of the Jews in this case). It is above belief that the Jews could ever believe that there was more than one deity who was their God. The crazy thing was of insinuating that Son of God meant being equal to God... sin of the Father meant being equal to the Father...
Here is the issue... I CAN FIND NO EVIDENCE OF ANY SUCH BELIEF AS THIS...

Can anyone help out on this ... where in scriptures is there such an ideology as ‘Son of the Father means son is equal to the Father’!!!???
Failure, and I believe it will be, means it’s a TRINITARIAN FALLACY ADDED TO THE VERSE TO TRY TO CREATE A TRINITY BELIEF.

Just think about it: Trinitarians insist that Jesus was here calling himself ‘God’ ... when Jesus himself was EXPRESSLY DENYING SAYING ANY SUCH THING.
What kind of mindset does it take to hear someone say ‘I did not say that’ and believe that the person was saying that he did? Any lawyers around???

YoursTrue · Aug 18, 2020

Oeste said:
Somehow I think Soapy is saying this and not Jesus.

Jesus is the Son of Man, so of course the Father is greater than he.

But Jesus is also the Son of God, and thus equal.

Jesus, as the son of man, was fully human. That he was also the son of God does not mean he was fully man and fully God at the same time. It means he was fully human and yet the human son of God. He was in heaven with the Father, and left his lofty position in heaven and came to the earth as a human, not God. He was the equal of Adam, but without sin throughout his lifetime.

Hockeycowboy · Aug 18, 2020

Thanks for your input! But keep in mind...

Iymus said:
I suspect one would have to read at least from John 10:27 with an emphasis on verse 28 and 30 to decipher verse 33.

Also, the verses following...what was Jesus' rebuttal? Wasn't it about those judges / powerful ones in Psalms, who were called "gods" (not The God) in Scripture?
But that wouldn't be a justifiable argument IF they were accusing Jesus of being THE God. Jesus' rebuttal would make no sense, i.e, have no bearing.

Iymus said:
Eternal life is of the Most High being the Originator; so for someone to mention giving eternal life they either have to receive that power from the Originator or be the Originator.

Yes, "receive that power". Is that not what Jesus said after His resurrection, at Matthew 28:18? "All authority has been given me." (If he were God, he would have had it at the start!)

Iymus said:
Joh 10:30 I and my Father are one.

Another thing to keep in mind....Did not Jesus say @ John 14:28, "the Father is greater than I am"? So how can these two seemingly contradicting Scriptures be correlated, i.e, unified?
By understanding the meaning of "one", seen in Jesus' prayer@ John 17...
"....that all of them may be one, as You, Father, are in Me, and I am in You. May they also be in Us, so that the world may believe that You sent Me. 22I have given them the glory You gave Me, so that they may be one as We are one— 23I in them and You in Me—that they may be perfectly united, so that the world may know that You sent Me and have loved them just as You have loved Me."

Take care, my cousin!

Soapy · Aug 19, 2020

Hockeycowboy said:
Thanks for your input! But keep in mind...

Also, the verses following...what was Jesus' rebuttal? Wasn't it about those judges / powerful ones in Psalms, who were called "gods" (not The God) in Scripture?
But that wouldn't be a justifiable argument IF they were accusing Jesus of being THE God. Jesus' rebuttal would make no sense, i.e, have no bearing.

Yes, "receive that power". Is that not what Jesus said after His resurrection, at Matthew 28:18? "All authority has been given me." (If he were God, he would have had it at the start!)

Another thing to keep in mind....Did not Jesus say @ John 14:28, "the Father is greater than I am"? So how can these two seemingly contradicting Scriptures be correlated, i.e, unified?
By understanding the meaning of "one", seen in Jesus' prayer@ John 17...
"....that all of them may be one, as You, Father, are in Me, and I am in You. May they also be in Us, so that the world may believe that You sent Me. 22I have given them the glory You gave Me, so that they may be one as We are one— 23I in them and You in Me—that they may be perfectly united, so that the world may know that You sent Me and have loved them just as You have loved Me."

Take care, my cousin!

HockeyCowboy, you are close to the truth on this matter.

Just understand that ‘God’ means ‘one of greatness, top dog, masterful one,...’ all applied in context.

The holy men were ‘Gods’ IN CONTEXT of the greatness of their carrying out Yhwh’s words. They were not ‘sons of god’ in that although they carried out YHWH’s works they were sinful at some stage.

Jesus was pointing out that HE DID NOT class himself as ‘greatness’ (did not call himself ‘God’) but in fact even less so than those men Yhwh praised. How was he blaspheming by simply saying that ‘YHWH is my Father’...
And in case it is not already clear:

“SON OF GOD” (or better, ‘Son of the Father’) meant:
- “Completely Following the Spirit Of the God” - “Completely doing the works of the Father”

You can analogies this in thinking of humanity:
We are ‘Sons of man/a father’ by Procreation.... BUT if we do not do as our Father does, if we don’t do what the Father directs us to do.. then he says, ‘Get thee behind me - I know you not... You are NO SON OF MINE’
And yet, even a stranger child, DOING THE WORKS AS DIRECTED, yet not procreated by that Father, he says to him: “Well done, YOU ARE A SON TO ME’:

‘This is my Son in whom I am well pleased’
‘This day I have become your Father, and you have become MY SON’

These are hardly a thing to say if Jesus WAS GOD!!! And When was this spoken by YHWH TO JESUS? And why? Certainly that sounds like AN ADOPTION STATEMENT.

Remember Onesimus WAS ADOPTED to the Apostle Paul AS HIS SON because Onesimus fully carried out the works Paul gave him to do.... Can you hear Paul saying 1) and 2) to Onesimus?

Hockeycowboy · Aug 19, 2020

@Soapy , cute profile picture! Reminds me of an old friend, whom I haven't seen in decades.

Take care, my cousin!

Iymus · Aug 19, 2020

Hockeycowboy said:
Also, the verses following...what was Jesus' rebuttal? Wasn't it about those judges / powerful ones in Psalms, who were called "gods" (not The God) in Scripture?
But that wouldn't be a justifiable argument IF they were accusing Jesus of being THE God. Jesus' rebuttal would make no sense, i.e, have no bearing.

If someone says they can give you eternal life, either they are declaring themselves to be the one who can; or they have received jurisdiction/power from the one who can:

If someone says they can judge you, either they are declaring themselves to be the one who can or they have jurisdiction/power from the one who can.

Essentially If he called them judges, unto whom the word of The Judge came, and the scripture cannot be broken.

We have one Father and Provider/Protector in Heaven but if he called them father and husband on earth who has those roles, responsibility, jurisdiction, etc; then the scripture cannot be broken

If the Jews interpretation of what Christ said is correct then their response is justified because Eternal Life is of/originates from the supreme being or source;

If the Jews interpretation of Christ words should be "a god" then that seems like blasphemy because Eternal life is not of "a god"

Joh 10:28 I give unto them eternal life;

Eternal life is not of himself and if he does not do the works or subservient to the works of who Eternal life is of then believe him not

Joh 10:37

--------------

Following seems supportive and self explanatory:

Mat 7:21

Joh 7:16

Joh 5:30

Eternal life also seem to consist of knowing who the only true One is, and the one who was sent and declared him; because if you do not know one how can you know the other? Joh 17:3

YoursTrue · Aug 19, 2020

Iymus said:
If someone says they can give you eternal life, either they are declaring themselves to be the one who can; or they have received jurisdiction/power from the one who can:

If someone says they can judge you, either they are declaring themselves to be the one who can or they have jurisdiction/power from the one who can.

Essentially If he called them judges, unto whom the word of The Judge came, and the scripture cannot be broken.

We have one Father and Provider/Protector in Heaven but if he called them father and husband on earth who has those roles, responsibility, jurisdiction, etc; then the scripture cannot be broken

If the Jews interpretation of what Christ said is correct then their response is justified because Eternal Life is of/originates from the supreme being or source;

If the Jews interpretation of Christ words should be "a god" then that seems like blasphemy because Eternal life is not of "a god"

Joh 10:28 I give unto them eternal life;

Eternal life is not of himself and if he does not do the works or subservient to the works of who Eternal life is of then believe him not

Joh 10:37

--------------

Following seems supportive and self explanatory:

Mat 7:21

Joh 7:16

Joh 5:30

Eternal life also seem to consist of knowing who the only true One is, and the one who was sent and declared him; because if you do not know one how can you know the other? Joh 17:3

Jehovah let Himself be known to the Jews by means of the Law Covenant and the prophets. The Law was perfect, reflecting God's personality. The Jews failed to keep it. It (the Law) sent a message. They were waiting for the Messiah. He sent His Son. He was killed (set up for death) by those professing to keep the Law. God raised him from the dead and Jesus was thereafter in a different, higher position than he was before. What do you think about that?

YoursTrue · Aug 19, 2020

Hockeycowboy said:
Thanks for your input! But keep in mind...

Also, the verses following...what was Jesus' rebuttal? Wasn't it about those judges / powerful ones in Psalms, who were called "gods" (not The God) in Scripture?
But that wouldn't be a justifiable argument IF they were accusing Jesus of being THE God. Jesus' rebuttal would make no sense, i.e, have no bearing.

Yes, "receive that power". Is that not what Jesus said after His resurrection, at Matthew 28:18? "All authority has been given me." (If he were God, he would have had it at the start!)

Another thing to keep in mind....Did not Jesus say @ John 14:28, "the Father is greater than I am"? So how can these two seemingly contradicting Scriptures be correlated, i.e, unified?
By understanding the meaning of "one", seen in Jesus' prayer@ John 17...
"....that all of them may be one, as You, Father, are in Me, and I am in You. May they also be in Us, so that the world may believe that You sent Me. 22I have given them the glory You gave Me, so that they may be one as We are one— 23I in them and You in Me—that they may be perfectly united, so that the world may know that You sent Me and have loved them just as You have loved Me."

Yes. The trinity doctrine has not only been a confusing doctrine, in many ways leading men to very bad behavior. Making a great wedge between them and God.

Soapy · Aug 19, 2020

Iymus said:
If someone says they can give you eternal life, either they are declaring themselves to be the one who can; or they have received jurisdiction/power from the one who can:

If someone says they can judge you, either they are declaring themselves to be the one who can or they have jurisdiction/power from the one who can.

Essentially If he called them judges, unto whom the word of The Judge came, and the scripture cannot be broken.

We have one Father and Provider/Protector in Heaven but if he called them father and husband on earth who has those roles, responsibility, jurisdiction, etc; then the scripture cannot be broken

If the Jews interpretation of what Christ said is correct then their response is justified because Eternal Life is of/originates from the supreme being or source;

If the Jews interpretation of Christ words should be "a god" then that seems like blasphemy because Eternal life is not of "a god"

Joh 10:28 I give unto them eternal life;

Eternal life is not of himself and if he does not do the works or subservient to the works of who Eternal life is of then believe him not

Joh 10:37

--------------

Following seems supportive and self explanatory:

Mat 7:21

Joh 7:16

Joh 5:30

Eternal life also seem to consist of knowing who the only true One is, and the one who was sent and declared him; because if you do not know one how can you know the other? Joh 17:3

Is it possible that you guys can stop talking about ‘a God’? There is no such interpretation of what Jesus said...

You are all straining at a gnat with this verse because it makes no sense ... the reason for it making no sense is because it has been PURPOSELY MISTRANSLATED by trinitarians.

Jesus was flabbergasted that the Jews should believe that he was calling himself ‘GOD’ when he told them that:

“God is my Father”

But see here, the JEWS THEMSELVES say that:

“God is our Father”

So how can it be BLASPHEMY if Jesus says the same.

MOREOVER, the words were:

“How be it that you, a man, are making yourself out to be EQUAL TO GOD [in saying you are THE SON OF GOD!]”

The false premise being that it is SUPPOSED that a Son is EQUAL to his FATHER... which we know is not true.

But then, EVEN WORSE, they were ALSO supposed to believe that BEING EQUAL TO GOD means BEING GOD... which is equally so absurd as to only fool fools!!!

So all in all, the whole point of what the Jews are claiming can be seen as pure and utter nonsense. Remember that Trinitarians believe that Jesus is supposed to have GIVEN UP BEING GOD...

So, we are to believe that Jesus was God, then GAVE UP being God, then WAS GOD, then was GIVEN GLORY BY GOD, then DIED....., and was RAISED UP BY GOD (who died) and sat down next to God in heaven only to be GIVEN POWER AND AUTHORITY TO RULE for a thousand years whence he HANDS BACK POWER AND AUTHORITY TO GOD who gave it him in the first place... and finally Jesus (Who is God) is given RULERSHIP over CREATION - which is a crumb of a kingdom in the vastness of Heaven....?????

Iymus · Aug 19, 2020

YoursTrue said:
Jehovah let Himself be known to the Jews by means of the Law Covenant and the prophets. The Law was perfect, reflecting God's personality. The Jews failed to keep it. It (the Law) sent a message. They were waiting for the Messiah. He sent His Son. He was killed (set up for death) by those professing to keep the Law. God raised him from the dead and Jesus was thereafter in a different, higher position than he was before. What do you think about that?

I do not see relevancy to the Opening Post in regards to John 10:33. So will message you privately when I get a chance

Hockeycowboy said:
Almost every version of John 10:33 that I’ve checked, says “God”...that the Jews were saying that Jesus was implying that he was God.

Is this accurate?

Yes this seems to be the case because they believe Eternal Life originates from their Power so taken out of context John 10:28 -30 could be falsely interpreted as the Son saying Eternal Life originates with him and he is their Power which would be blasphemy.

Hockeycowboy said:
It’s obvious that the verse should read, “a god”, which was the argument Jesus proceeded with, at John 10:34.

It’s just another verse where Greek grammar’s lack of the indefinite article is used to promote faulty theology.

Obvious is an interesting statement or word you have used.

Cite the English translation you are using if possible in regards to John 10:34 and also cite the most accurate English translation bible to your knowledge.

Iymus · Aug 19, 2020

Soapy said:
Is it possible that you guys can stop talking about ‘a God’? There is no such interpretation of what Jesus said...

You are all straining at a gnat with this verse because it makes no sense ... the reason for it making no sense is because it has been PURPOSELY MISTRANSLATED by trinitarians.

Jesus was flabbergasted that the Jews should believe that he was calling himself ‘GOD’ when he told them that:

“God is my Father”

But see here, the JEWS THEMSELVES say that:

“God is our Father”

So how can it be BLASPHEMY if Jesus says the same.

MOREOVER, the words were:

“How be it that you, a man, are making yourself out to be EQUAL TO GOD [in saying you are THE SON OF GOD!]”

The false premise being that it is SUPPOSED that a Son is EQUAL to his FATHER... which we know is not true.

But then, EVEN WORSE, they were ALSO supposed to believe that BEING EQUAL TO GOD means BEING GOD... which is equally so absurd as to only fool fools!!!

So all in all, the whole point of what the Jews are claiming can be seen as pure and utter nonsense. Remember that Trinitarians believe that Jesus is supposed to have GIVEN UP BEING GOD...

So, we are to believe that Jesus was God, then GAVE UP being God, then WAS GOD, then was GIVEN GLORY BY GOD, then DIED....., and was RAISED UP BY GOD (who died) and sat down next to God in heaven only to be GIVEN POWER AND AUTHORITY TO RULE for a thousand years whence he HANDS BACK POWER AND AUTHORITY TO GOD who gave it him in the first place... and finally Jesus (Who is God) is given RULERSHIP over CREATION - which is a crumb of a kingdom in the vastness of Heaven....?????

Please unwatch the thread or block me and not infringe upon my right to dialogue with the individual who created this post and those who respond to me. Thank you in advance.
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Interesting when you have people showing the same Divinity of the Father in a like manner but you seemingly have those that discourage you because not following or explaining it the way they would, and then you also have those that encourage it. Some are the same individuals that would ask me why I am not a certain popular or corporate non trinitarian faith.

Mar 9:38 And John answered him, saying, Master, we saw one casting out devils in thy name, and he followeth not us: and we forbad him, because he followeth not us.
Mar 9:39 But Jesus said, Forbid him not: for there is no man which shall do a miracle in my name, that can lightly speak evil of me.

Evidence for “a god” at John 10:33

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