All the uses of the word “prophet” in which John used the predicate noun (“prophet”) before the verb are (1) John 1:21, (2) John 4:19, and (3) John 9:17. According to Colwell’s Rule, then, it would be senseless for John to have used the article with “prophet” since it is automatically “understood” to be there! In other words, Colwell’s Rule (as “interpreted” by some trinitarians, at least) would have “prophet” written
without a definite article and translated as “
the Prophet” (not “
a prophet”)! So, let’s examine every usage of “prophet” when used this way by John.
(1) John 1:21 reads literally in the original NT Greek: “
The prophet are you?”. Why would John have used the article (“the”) here when Colwell’s Rule virtually precludes it? He used the definite article
because John did not know of Colwell’s “rule” or anything even remotely similar.
He used it because the article
was needed even though the predicate noun came before the verb. At the very least John wanted us to be absolutely certain of what he meant and, therefore,
had to use the definite article. By not using it, there would surely have been doubt (unless Colwell’s Rule had
really existed) as to whether he intended “
a prophet” or “
the Prophet.” So John used the article to make sure we understood that John the Baptist was being asked if he were
the Prophet. (Not only do all trinitarian Bibles make “the Prophet” definite at John 1:21, but many - including
NIV, TEV, GNB, REB, NKJV, JB, NJB, NASB, AT, NAB [1970 & 1991 editions],
LB, KJIIV, Moffatt, and Phillips - actually CAPITALIZE “
Prophet” and, thereby, show the truly one-of-a-kind nature intended by this term: truly comparable to “God” vs. “a god.”) Compare the articular post-verb “
the Prophet” at Jn 7:40.
“
The Prophet,” of course, referred to the Messiah (see p. 894,
An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words, W. E. Vine, 1983 printing; p. 130,
Today’s Dictionary of the Bible, 1982, Bethany House Publ.; and pp. 765, 770, 984,
New Bible Dictionary, 2nd ed., 1982, Tyndale House Publ.). So this is a title which properly applies to Jesus (even though John the Baptist was the one being questioned at this point) and was understood in the
highest,
one-of-a-kind sense: “The Prophet of prophets.”
Dr. William Barclay, highly-respected trinitarian NT scholar tells us about ‘the Prophet’ of Jn 1:21 -
“[The Jews] waited and longed for the emergence of the prophet who would be
the greatest of all prophets,
the Prophet par excellence. But once again John denied that this honor was his.” -
The Gospel of John, vol. 1, revised ed., The Daily Study Bible Series, 1975.
This verse (Jn 1:21 - “The Prophet”) probably, then, provides the best comparison with the “God”/”a god” understanding of the Bible writers. “
The Prophet” of John 1:21 is a title for a prophet who is “The Prophet of prophets” in the
highest, one-of-a-kind sense just as
The God is “The God of gods” in the
highest, one-of-a-kind sense.
(2) John 4:19 reads literally in the original Greek: “I am beholding that prophet are you.” This time John did
not use the article with “prophet.” So, Colwell’s Rule shows that “prophet” should be translated into English with an
understood “the” because the predicate noun “prophet” came before the verb, right?
WRONG! Look at any translation.
In the Bible translations I have examined (including
KJV, RSV, NRSV, TEV, GNB, NEB, REB, NIV, NASB, JB, and
NJB) it is
always translated: “I see you are
a prophet.” (None of those translations have capitalized “prophet” at this scripture.)
This is identical to the const-ruction in John 1:1c. (Not only does the predicate noun come before the verb, but the subject comes after the verb
exactly as in John 1:1c.)
https://www.biblegateway.com/verse/en/John%204:19
Now let’s examine the only other instance where John uses “prophet” as a predicate noun coming before the verb.
(3) John 9:17 reads literally in the Greek: “The [man] but said that ‘prophet he is.’” Again Colwell’s Rule insists (according to some trinitarian interpretations) that the predicate noun “prophet” be translated with an “understood” definite article. So all trinitarian translations of this verse must say: “The man said, ‘He is
the Prophet.’” Right? Wrong again! Look at any Bible translation of John 9:17.
In the 16 different translations I have examined it is
always translated: “The man said, ‘He is
a prophet.’” Notice that even the context is not decisive in this case!
John 9:17 - Bible Gateway
So a person must ask himself, why would the Apostle John use the article with an important title for Jesus (“The Prophet”) at John 1:21 and not use it with an even more important (according to most trinitarian misinterpretations) title for Jesus
(theos) at John 1:1c ? If “prophet” must have the article with it before it can be translated “the Prophet” (John 1:21) even though it is a predicate noun coming before the verb, and it is consistently translated “
a prophet” (John 4:19 and John 9:17) in trinitarian translations when it does
not have the article with it, then it should certainly be no surprise to any NT Greek scholar or translator when an honest translator renders the
identical construction at John 1:1c as “and the Word was
a god”! A study of all John’s writings simply does not allow for the trinitarian interpretation: “and the Word was
God (or ‘the God’)”!