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Koran v. Bible

InvestigateTruth

Well-Known Member
You mean this:
New International Version (©1984)
He replied, "Go your way, Daniel, because the words are closed up and sealed until the time of the end

First it says until the time of the end, not the end of time. That means that since we are living in the last days then we understand what it is in the book. Second the book is only the book of Daniel not the rest of the bible which was written later. Once again you are just making up stuff that makes Baha 'i look better. This verse is true because only relatively recently have the prophecies in Daniel been understood. Even recent most of them came before Baha'u'llah and he has nothing to do with them. Also the HOLY SPIRIT that Christ sent will lead us into all truth and so we have no need of a Baha'u'llah (which explains how I became saved and on my way to heaven before I ever even heard of that guy). You remind me of a used car salesman who will say anything if it makes his position look better. If you go to those sites I gave you you will atleast not look as silly in the future by missinterpreting the bible so badly. I just can't understand the risking of your only soul on a religion that apparently requires the missenterpretation of other religions.

Peace out,


The fact that the Book is sealed is also reminded in the Book of revelation. In our view, the Book is unsealed now.
"And I saw in the right hand of him that sat on the throne a book written within and on the backside, sealed with seven seals." Rev 5:1

Regrading the meaning of sicknesses, these have metaphoric meanings in our view.
For example:


4:23 "And Jesus went about all Galilee, teaching in their synagogues, and preaching the gospel of the kingdom, and healing all manner of sickness and all manner of disease among the people."


In my view, this means, by teaching spirituallity, He came to heal spiritual sickness.​

"Let Dead Bury Their Dead" is interpreted as spritually dead, eventhough, you do not see the word "spiritually" in the verse.
In our view, the message of Jesus is essentally, a spiritual one.

This is why He said: "Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the Kingdom of God. That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit."

 
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InvestigateTruth

Well-Known Member
InvestigateTruth


I do not know if this MOD had anything to do with me but as I spent a lot of time on these posts I would really like a response from you. If my language was a bit short I ask your forgiveness.

Could you please, only discuss as it is related to the interpretation of the Bible in your view, so we can continue this thread.
You show alot of negative emotions in your posts, and keep saying; "you are wrong" "you don't understand" etc...
So, I think what RF requires us, is only discuss our views, without saying, like "you are wrong", or your religion is wrong...(by saying these things, you do not prove your case, but it shows you are trying to force your idea, and this is not acceptable in RF)
You know that Bible can be interpreted in different ways. In fact, the reason there are thousands of christian denominations, is because, everyone interpretes it differently.
So, please just try to explain your view, by providing references from Bible. You often say, certain respectable scholars interpreted the Bible in this or that way.
I don't care if billions and billions of people, for the past 2000 years, interpreted bible in certain ways (I already know about those literal interpretations.)

-Peace
 
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InvestigateTruth

Well-Known Member
No it isn't. Jesus existed forever moses did not. Jesus could forgive sin (as only God can) Moses could not.

In our view, the divine Messengers have 2 main stations.
For example, Jesus is said to be the Image of God:

2 Cor. 4:4 "In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them."

This means that the holy reality of God appeared in Jesus. This is the reason Jesus is the Image of God, So in our view He is not God Himself.
This holy reality existed for ever. It is the power of God which is Manifested in Divine Messengers, by which God created everything:


1:15 Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature: 1:16 For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him."


But the indivisuality of Jesus or any other Messengers did not exist before they were born.

This is why He is also called Son of Man.



Other Messengers also said similar things, Muhammad said "before Adam He was a Messenger". The Bab and Baha'u'llah said similar things. Because their spiritual reality existed. This is why, John the Baptist is said to be the return of Elijah, similarly in our view Baha'u'llah is Spiritual return of Christ.
 

InvestigateTruth

Well-Known Member
No it isn't. Jesus said this because he was in a volunarily deminished role. He lowered himself for his earthly ministry. That is why he could say if you have seen him you have seen the father.

In our view, He said "if you have seen him you have seen the father", is because, He was image of God.
If He was God Himself, why should the scripture say He is image of God?

I don't think He had to lower Himself for earthly ministry. I don't think God would lower Himself for His creatures. Jesus was exactly what He said, nothing more, nothing less.





This is rediculous. Did Pharo let the Jews go because Moses sent a symbolic plague? Did moses give the thirsty Jews water in the desert?
Did he feed 400,000 people starving people in the desert with symbolic quail? Were they following a symbolic pillar of fire? Did they walk through the middle of a symbolic red sea? This is pathetic.

This is why the Book was sealed till the end of the Age.



In other words your prophet never did any miracles or anything else so you must distort other religions scripture to claim they didn't either.

As a matter of fact many Baha'is witnessed Baha'u'llah doing Miracles, but firstly, we do not use miracles as proof as per our scriptures, and please use another thread for questions regrading Baha'i faith, that's just not related to the subject of this thread.
 

InvestigateTruth

Well-Known Member
Scripture screw up number three. This was physical food. Yes there are scriptures where food means spiritual food this isn't one.
Mark 14:13 “We have here only five loaves of bread and two fish,” they answered.
You are seriously ignorant of biblical theology. Were these spiritual fish? .


I am saying the scripture can have parables. It can give a parabolic story, without saying that this story is parable or literal. In our view these stories are parabolic and have hidden meanings.

Jesus talked a lot in parables. The scripture is full of parables and symbolic stories.
The scripture has tests for reproof. So, in my view, when Jesus said "only a corrupted generation asks for Miracles", Now, if we are drawn to make our belief based on miracles, what is the difference between us and those who asked for miracles? But if our belief is based on spiritual teachings, then this is the intention of Jesus. So, the scripture tests us. It gives a story, and if we think of it as a literal miracle, then we fail the test, but if we see it as spiritual or as parabols which teaches moral and spirituality, then we pass the tests in the scriptures.

Now with regards to the fish story:


6:5 "When Jesus then lifted up his eyes, and saw a great company come unto him, he saith unto Philip, Whence shall we buy bread, that these may eat?" 6:6 "And this he said to prove him: for he himself knew what he would do."


To me scripture is saying, Jesus was talking about heavenly bread, He meant, spreading the spiritual teachings among those, so, He wanted to test Philip, if he understands what He means by bread. ;)

This is another one:


6:53 "Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you."


Well, if Jesus flesh and blood can be spiritual teachings, why not fish and bread? :D




3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness
 
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1robin

Christian/Baptist
The fact that the Book is sealed is also reminded in the Book of revelation. In our view, the Book is unsealed now.
"And I saw in the right hand of him that sat on the throne a book written within and on the backside, sealed with seven seals." Rev 5:1
There is no sealed book in revelations you are probably thinking of this:
New International Version (©1984)
I warn everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: If anyone adds anything to them, God will add to him the plagues described in this book.
Revelation 22:18 I warn everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: If anyone adds anything to them, God will add to him the plagues described in this book.
This means no one is to add to the bible. That applies to any later religions. There are some sealed scrolls in revelations but they are in heaven and will not be revieled until CHRIST returns. The sealed in Daniel applied the the time of the end and not the end of time. Since most Christians believe we live in the end times then yes the book of Daniel has been known for over 200 - 300 years now. There is no connection that I can see with Baha 'i

Regrading the meaning of sicknesses, these have metaphoric meanings in our view.
For example:
Yes sometimes it is symbolic. Not in Mathew 4 though.


4:23 "And Jesus went about all Galilee, teaching in their synagogues, and preaching the gospel of the kingdom, and healing all manner of sickness and all manner of disease among the people."
[/quote]The original Greek for sickness is : malakia it's def:
1) softness
2) in the NT infirmity, debility, bodily weakness, sickness

Blue Letter Bible - Lexicon
Once again you would save both uf us much time if you would look up the actual Greek words before you posted. Greek is so descriptive that it can clarify things that English may not.

In my view, this means, by teaching spirituallity, He came to heal spiritual sickness.
That is not what the original Greek says.​

"Let Dead Bury Their Dead" is interpreted as spritually dead, eventhough, you do not see the word "spiritually" in the verse.
In our view, the message of Jesus is essentally, a spiritual one.​
I believe this one is actually correct.​




This is why He said: "Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the Kingdom of God. That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit."
The above verse is not why he said this. This is a reference to the Christian born again experience. It is the most crucial core doctrine in the bible. I have had this experience and it validated my faith. At the time I had it, I recieved it when I believed on Christ alone and had no need of any additional religious systems or teaching. Which validates Christ's claim that there is NO OTHER NAME by which men must be saved.

There are literal and symbolic verses in the bible I believe you are arbitrarily assigning literal verses with symbolic meanings to validate your stance. You are quite free to interpret theses things symbolically but you are doing so in opposition to virtually all Christian scholars and IMO the obvious and unmistakable context of the bible.

Shalom,
 

1robin

Christian/Baptist
Could you please, only discuss as it is related to the interpretation of the Bible in your view, so we can continue this thread.
You show alot of negative emotions in your posts, and keep saying; "you are wrong" "you don't understand" etc...
So, I think what RF requires us, is only discuss our views, without saying, like "you are wrong", or your religion is wrong...(by saying these things, you do not prove your case, but it shows you are trying to force your idea, and this is not acceptable in RF)
You know that Bible can be interpreted in different ways. In fact, the reason there are thousands of christian denominations, is because, everyone interpretes it differently.
So, please just try to explain your view, by providing references from Bible. You often say, certain respectable scholars interpreted the Bible in this or that way.
I don't care if billions and billions of people, for the past 2000 years, interpreted bible in certain ways (I already know about those literal interpretations.)

-Peace
I apologise but watching someone who contradicts almost universal scholarly opinion of something I regard as Holy is a frustrating experience. Especially when I go through the trouble of posting the original language, it's Greek definition, supply the sites and request you research interpretations before you post them, and I even supply the obvious context for the verses. I will try to be more cosmopolitan in the future but my desire to address claims so contradictory to universal conclusion is running out.
Peace
 

1robin

Christian/Baptist
In our view, the divine Messengers have 2 main stations.
For example, Jesus is said to be the Image of God:

2 Cor. 4:4 "In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them."

This means that the holy reality of God appeared in Jesus. This is the reason Jesus is the Image of God, So in our view He is not God Himself.
This holy reality existed for ever. It is the power of God which is Manifested in Divine Messengers, by which God created everything:


1:15 Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature: 1:16 For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him."


But the indivisuality of Jesus or any other Messengers did not exist before they were born.
The bible says specifically that Jesus did exist eternally. In fact the verse you used says: For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him."
How did he create the Earth of the things in heaven if he didn't exist until 00BC. Once again you are entitled to your opinion but it is contradictory to the most basic and universal Christian scholarly concensus. There are countless verses that leave no doubt as to Christ's eternal existance but whther image or actual is meaningless for this discussion anyway. I said that when someone makes an extraordinary claim they must provide extraordinary evidence. Jesus provided countless examples of his divinity. IMO I have not seen a single example for Bahá'u'lláh.

This is why He is also called Son of Man.
He refers to himself as son of man when he is addressing issues that are either examples for us or pertain to our humanity. He refers to himself as son of God when the issue concerns his divinity or divine role. He is a divine eternal spirit who took on temporal finite flesh for a period of time.​




Other Messengers also said similar things, Muhammad said "before Adam He was a Messenger". The Bab and Baha'u'llah said similar things. Because their spiritual reality existed. This is why, John the Baptist is said to be the return of Elijah, similarly in our view Baha'u'llah is Spiritual return of Christ.
However only Chirst actually gave countless proofs. In fact it is said in the bible that the resurrection was the validation that indeed Jesus was God and the father was with him. Since none of the people you mention above nor the countless false prophets in history were resurrected or performed countless supernatural acts and proofs then there is no comparison. His resurrection is even mentioned in several non biblical contemporary texts. In fact there is more textual information validating Christ than any other figure of ancient history.
 

InvestigateTruth

Well-Known Member
I apologise but watching someone who contradicts almost universal scholarly opinion of something I regard as Holy is a frustrating experience. Especially when I go through the trouble of posting the original language, it's Greek definition, supply the sites and request you research interpretations before you post them, and I even supply the obvious context for the verses. I will try to be more cosmopolitan in the future but my desire to address claims so contradictory to universal conclusion is running out.
Peace

So, are you saying that just because, there are certain beliefs universally accepted by Christians, and Christian scholars, then they are definately correct?
The Jews at the time of Jesus also had certain accepted conclusions about Torah, and according to their stablished understanding, Jesus did not meet the requirement to be their expected Messiah.
In fact the most learned of Jews at the time of Christ did not accept Jesus.
So, it seems to me, the only reason you do not agree with the interpretation which I discuss is because they contradict with the mainstream accepted interpretations by Christians, but not with the Bible. (To show if they contradict with Bible, you should put a verse beside what I say, then show they are different)
I see a similarity between the way you go after the truth and those living at the time of Jesus.

"Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works?
And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity." Matt. 7:23

To me the above quote means, that the mainstream understanding of Jesus Message is not correct, thus they are not following the commandments of the Father. So, it's clear to me, just believing Jesus is Lord doesn't save anyone.
 
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1robin

Christian/Baptist
So, are you saying that just because, there are certain beliefs universally accepted by Christians, and Christian scholars, then they are definately correct?
Nope, I am saying that if the bible's context, the plain reading, it's compatability with other consistent biblical doctrine, as well as virtually all commentators and scholars point to the same conclusion that to have one that contradicts this without vast amounts of undeniable evidence is most likely wrong. In fact most of the interpretations I have seen so far have reasons within the bible that make them impossible. If I claimed the moon was made of talcum powder I had better have some dang good evidence and lots of it if I wish people to believe me over the scientific community. The same is true with the theological community. If I were to assert that it was because it makes an implication I wish to be true and then suggest that all the scientist are wrong would seem desperate indeed.

The Jews at the time of Jesus also had certain accepted conclusions about Torah, and according to their stablished understanding, Jesus did not meet the requirement to be their expected Messiah. In fact the most learned of Jews at the time of Christ did not accept Jesus.
Well, the possibly (probably) most educated Jew of the time became my favorite apostle (Paul). He studied under Gamaliel (israel's most prominent teacher) and was a master of the law and spoke more on grace than all the other apostles combined. First they had only half the bible at their disposal. Second they have a vested interest to resist the belief Jesus was God since it was Jews that arrested him and led to his crucifixion. Third Christ was such a radical change from the absolute law they had known it is no suprise they had trouble recognizing him. Fourth the New Testament clearly says that the Jews are in error but will one day understand. Fifth while many of them deny Jesus is the messiah they still believe in his literal miracles. Sixth God for this reason resurrected Jesus as a end all, be all, validation of his claims. He claimed to be the unique son of God and to have existed eternally and God put his stamp of approval on his ministry by raising him. I don't have as much problem with views I dissagree with if they are still reasonable and most importantly biblically consistent. If you interpretations were correct they would make the bible a contradictory, chaotic, unreliable book IMO.



So, it seems to me, the only reason you do not agree with the interpretation which I discuss is because they contradict with the mainstream accepted interpretations by Christians, but not with the Bible. (To show if they contradict with Bible, you should put a verse beside what I say, then show they are different)
I have given countless verses, I have covered some like Lazerus in detail, and I have shown where your interpretations contradict the meanings in the original language they were written in. What you are saying here is not consistent with my posts.


I see a similarity between the way you go after the truth and those living at the time of Jesus.
Since the mainstream position on Jesus in his time wound up killing him I take this as a compliment. However since I even research the scriptures in the original language, and weigh in all the experts, pray daily, and have a relationship with Christ I actually see no resemblance whatsoever.

"Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works?
And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity." Matt. 7:23
To me the above quote means, that the mainstream understanding of Jesus Message is not correct, thus they are not following the commandments of the Father. So, it's clear to me, just believing Jesus is Lord doesn't save anyone.
Since being born again, as I said I have been requires the establishment of a personal relationship with Christ and adoption as God's son then for him to say "I never knew you" would make him a liar. Since he is no liar then this verse has nothing to do with any born again Christian. Since quoting the original language and it's definitions is apparently wasted time then lets look at a commentary.
Barnes' Notes on the Bible

Profess unto them - Say unto them; plainly declare. I never knew you - That is, I never approved of your conduct; never loved you; never regarded you as my friends. See Psalm 1:6; 2 Timothy 2:19; 1 Corinthians 8:3. This proves that, with all their pretensions, they had never been true followers of Christ. Jesus will not then say to false prophets and false professors of religion that he had once known them and then rejected them; that they had been once Christians and then had fallen away; that they had been pardoned and then had apostatized but that he had never known them - they had never been true christians. Whatever might have been their pretended joys, their raptures, their hopes, their self-confidence, their visions, their zeal, they had never been regarded by the Saviour as his true friends. I do not know of a more decided proof that Christians do not fall from grace than this text. It settles the question; and proves that whatever else such people had, they never had any true religion. See 1 John 2:19.
Matthew 7:23 Then I will tell them plainly, 'I never knew you. Away from me, you evildoers!'
Bolding and underlining is mine. Countless people wear crosses on their neck, say they are spritual, or have a superficial religion. None of these meets the biblical definition of a Christian.

IMO this perfectly applies to any new religion that comes along and professes to be true and then contradicts or accepts contradictory doctrines as in what I see with Baha 'i. I can only bear saying this one last time if you will review at least the original language and hopefully some scholarly commentaries as well as including the cross references to establish the consistency with the entire biblical narrative you would avoid what I see as wasting your time on unbiblical doctrine. It is apparent you are still not doing this even though that is what should be done if the truth is the goal. Cherry picking verses and stripping them of their context to make an unjustified claim is not a meaningful effort. I am getting burned out and frustrated with continually showing you verses in the original language and their definitions then backing it up with respected and widely accepted scholarly material developed over more than a thousand years only to have you IMO switch to a whole new series of inapplicable and unbiblical claims. I feel as if I am debateing someone's emotional position that is independant of facts. There are entire universitys that have existed for hundreds and hundreds of years who's sole purpose was to find biblical truth. The bible is by far the most tested, researched, and cherished book in human history. If you are comfortable adopting a position to which virtually the entire scholarly community that specializes in that system, has had 2000yrs to work out the kinks, and dissagrees with it then maybe we should leave it at that.
 
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InvestigateTruth

Well-Known Member
Nope, I am saying that if the bible's context, the plain reading, it's compatability with other consistent biblical doctrine, as well as virtually all commentators and scholars point to the same conclusion that to have one that contradicts this without vast amounts of undeniable evidence is most likely wrong..

But it seems to me you ignored my comment when I said in post 526:

http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/3005926-post526.html


The Scripture can give a parabolic story, without saying that this story is parable or literal to test you. So, I haven't seen that you could address this comment, so my point still holds.

Therefore, I am telling you the possibility that a particular Parabolic story is given to test. I gave the example of the fish story.


You are assuming that the Christians have the correct understanding of Bible, on the basis that Jesus revealed New Testament for Christians, and therefore you have the right understanding of the New Testament. But this is only an assumption.

Because for example, the Messenger of Jews is Moses, who revealed Torah, in which it promises Messiah.
Do you think you have a better understanding of interpreting Torah or the Jews?
I would say you think you know better than them, since you claim you recognize the Messiah in Torah to be Jesus, but Jews didn't.
Likewise, it's clear therefore, the true understanding of the New Testament, would be revealed only at the return of Christ. So, if Christ at His coming say, the interpretation of His Book is this, and not what you understood, you cannot say to Christ, our scholars tell us otherwise and Your interpretation condradicts the majority of Christians. Because He is the Author, He has the knowledge of Book perfectly.
Now, regardless you don't believe He has returned or not, to say, it contradicts what the Christian Mainstream interpretes, is not the right reasoning.
 
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1robin

Christian/Baptist
But it seems to me you ignored my comment when I said in post 526:

http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/3005926-post526.html


The Scripture can give a parabolic story, without saying that this story is parable or literal to test you. So, I haven't seen that you could address this comment, so my point still holds.

Therefore, I am telling you the possibility that a particular Parabolic story is given to test. I gave the example of the fish story.
I did not notice that post before. By all means I will address it shortly. Yes Jesus spoke in parables and it has been known in 90% plus of the cases for 1500 plus years which are parables and which are not. There are still a few that are debated but you have not mentioned any of them. As I told you the Hebrews (the ones who wrote the bible) have a well established system for evaluating scripture. It is literal unless a literal interpretation is impossible then you examine the parable interpretation.
I have countered virtually your whole position with the exception of this post with simple well known orthedox Christianity that is available for verification and so to emphasize a point I don't remember seeing is kind of spitting on a forest fire in my opinion.


You are assuming that the Christians have the correct understanding of Bible, on the basis that Jesus revealed New Testament for Christians, and therefore you have the right understanding of the New Testament. But this is only an assumption.
It is hardly an assuption that Christ was writing to everyone and anyone who understands becomes a Christian. Since Christian means follower of Christ then to suggest that he didn't write for his followers is rather silly.

Because for example, the Messenger of Jews is Moses, who revealed Torah, in which it promises Messiah.
He was a messenger for the Jews not the messenger.

Do you think you have a better understanding of interpreting Torah or the Jews?
I would say you think you know better than them, since you claim you recognize the Messiah in Torah to be Jesus, but Jews didn't.
Since the Hebrews had half of what we have as far as texts yes we have an advantage. As far as modern Jews rejection of the messiah goes even the bible specifically says they would reject him so when they do I find the bible both accurate and literal. As far as their interpretations go we (Christians and Jews) agree on the majority and even the points we do not I find their interpretation as reasonable even if not correct. IMO yours are unreasonable. I am unaware of even any Jewish interpretation that thinks miracles are symbolic. I will add that since the bible says the would and they did reject Christ that I have an advantage since I did not reject him of understanding his word.



Likewise, it's clear therefore, the true understanding of the New Testament, would be revealed only at the return of Christ
This is an unbiblical and to me unknown belief of anyone. The entire new testament is contradictory to this.
So, if Christ at His coming say, the interpretation of His Book is this, and not what you understood, you cannot say to Christ, our scholars tell us otherwise and Your interpretation condradicts the majority of Christians. Because He is the Author, He has the knowledge of Book perfectly.
This is an argument from silence as well as most of your position is not a valid claim. I have met Jesus (spiritually) and have been in the presence of God several times and it was by following the bible as it is understood. Like I said if you wish to counter the wisdom accepted by way over a billion people and consistent for thousands of years then fine but to do so without some validation is futile. I would not go to Einstein and tell him relativity is wrong because I think so even though it is universally confirmed by his fellow scientists. If my faith did not come with signs and wonders for proofs then I might believe it but I would be foolish to think that it would overturn a far more accepted and established religion.


Now, regardless you don't believe He has returned or not, how can you claim with absolute certanty that you understood the interpretation of Bible correctly?
I never claimed that I know that I do understand it perfectly. However when I developed my own doctrine and then compared it to the worlds great theologians and commentators with few exceptions then I have a high degree of confidence in it. You are perfectly free to believe that God is the tooth farie but to think that you understand the bible correctly when thousands of people who have dedicated and even given their life to understand it and have all came to the same core conclusions is futile. Those Greek words simply mean what they mean. You might as well challenge my understanding of what blue or up means. I will address your post next but then I am out of time.
 

1robin

Christian/Baptist
I am saying the scripture can have parables. It can give a parabolic story, without saying that this story is parable or literal. In our view these stories are parabolic and have hidden meanings.
Yes it can but in many in does say specifically it is a parable. Virtually all the rest with a few exceptions have only one possible nature. If context is known then there are few actual cases where it's parable/literal nature isn't obvious. None of the ones you have mentioned are contentuous.

The scripture has tests for reproof. So, in my view, when Jesus said "only a corrupted generation asks for Miracles",
Reproof means to negate or correct and doesn't apply here. There are rules the Hebrews used and have been employed by modern scholars. They say that the literal interpretation applies unless it is impossible.

Now, if we are drawn to make our belief based on miracles, what is the difference between us and those who asked for miracles?
I never said said our beliefs are primarily based on literal miracles even though the bible says that signs and wonders are proofs. Miracles are signs of the supernatural but which side is determined by other means.

2 Corinthians 12:12
English Standard Version (ESV)
12 The signs of a true apostle were performed among you with utmost patience, with signs and wonders and mighty works.
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2+Corinthians+12%3A12&version=ESV
1 Corinthians 2:4 My message and my preaching were not with wise and persuasive words, but with a demonstration of the Spirit's power,
1 Thessalonians 1:5 because our gospel came to you not simply with words, but also with power, with the Holy Spirit and with deep conviction. You know how we lived among you for your sake
2 Corinthians 12:12 The things that mark an apostle--signs, wonders and miracles--were done among you with great perseverance.

I have already explained that in the cases where Jesus denied signs was when he knew they were testing him and their hearts were insincere. If he didn't think miracles were important he sure wasted a lot of time. Here is a partial list of just the ones in the Gospels.

I will have to seperate these for legnth.
 
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1robin

Christian/Baptist
I am saying the scripture can have parables. It can give a parabolic story, without saying that this story is parable or literal. In our view these stories are parabolic and have hidden meanings
Jesus sure did waste a lot of time then. Here is a link for a partial list of over 220 (I believe all are) literal miracles:
Miracles, including list of biblical miracles (WebBible

Here is the biblical definition of a miracle at the same site:

Miracle

A true miracle is an event in the external world brought about by the immediate agency or the simple volition of God, operating without the use of means capable of being discerned by the senses, and designed to authenticate the divine commission of a religious teacher and the truth of his message (John 2:18; Matt. 12:38).

As you can see literal is the common concensus view.

But if our belief is based on spiritual teachings, then this is the intention of Jesus.
It is not either/or.
So, the scripture tests us. It gives a story, and if we think of it as a literal miracle, then we fail the test, but if we see it as spiritual or as parabols which teaches moral and spirituality, then we pass the tests in the scriptures.
You invent an arbitrary non biblical test then accuse me of failing it.
Now with regards to the fish story:
6:5 "When Jesus then lifted up his eyes, and saw a great company come unto him, he saith unto Philip, Whence shall we buy bread, that these may eat?" 6:6 "And this he said to prove him: for he himself knew what he would do."
To me scripture is saying, Jesus was talking about heavenly bread, He meant, spreading the spiritual teachings among those, so, He wanted to test Philip, if he understands what He means by bread.
As I have insisted please gain a complete familiarity with what you claim. You didn't see this apparently:
New International Version(©1984)
Philip answered him, "Eight months' wages would not buy enough bread for each one to have a bite!"
John 6:7 Philip answered him, "Eight months' wages would not buy enough bread for each one to have a bite!"
or this:
New International Version(©1984)
When Jesus looked up and saw a great crowd coming toward him, he said to Philip, "Where shall we buy bread for these people to eat?"
Why are they discussing the actual price of actual bread if this is sipritual? Since they all knew that spiritual things can not be gained for money why all the money references? This is 100% consistent with a literal interpretation and and contains no reference to a spiritual implication. As I said besides being obviously literal, it is by correct biblical exegesic procedure it is anyway unless it is impossible. Feeding literal people literal fish is not impossible. This miracle is the only one written in all 4 gospels, and it doesn't have a spiritual implication in any of them.
Here is the commentary for what it's worth:
Matthew Henry's Concise Commentary
6:1-14 John relates the miracle of feeding the multitude, for its reference to the following discourse. Observe the effect this miracle had upon the people. Even the common Jews expected the Messiah to come into the world, and to be a great Prophet. The Pharisees despised them as not knowing the law; but they knew most of Him who is the end of the law. Yet men may acknowledge Christ as that Prophet, and still turn a deaf ear to him
John 6:5 When Jesus looked up and saw a great crowd coming toward him, he said to Philip, "Where shall we buy bread for these people to eat?"
This is the most accepted commentary in the world. He doesn't mention a hint of symbolism but he does mention the Pharisees which might explain the test them verse. I found every major commentary consistent with his claims.
John 6:63 The Spirit gives life; the flesh counts for nothing. The words I have spoken to you are spirit and they are life.
This is another one:
6:53 "Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you."
Well, if Jesus flesh and blood can be spiritual teachings, why not fish and bread?
If you can't see the difference between a person that is hungry eating a fish and God suggesting canabalism I doubt me or the bible is much help. Since eating another person is a sin that means a literal interpretation is impossible and so the symbolic is applicable. See how smart them Hebrews are. However just to show you the commentators do acknowledge what is symbolic if it actually is. Even the desciples got confused by this one which they wouldn't have unless most of his teachings were not literal. They mistakenly thought even this was literal. We have the advantage of two thousand years on these guys.
New Living Translation(©2007)
Jesus was aware that his disciples were complaining, so he said to them, "Does this offend you?
He of course senses this and explains what you apparently didn't read.
New Living Translation(©2007)
The Spirit alone gives eternal life. Human effort accomplishes nothing. And the very words I have spoken to you are spirit and life
This is from Barne's notes:
Profiteth nothing - Would not avail to the real needs of man. The bread that Moses gave, the food which you seek, would not be of real value to man's highest wants.
They are spirit - They are spiritual. They are not to be understood literally, as if you were really to eat my flesh, but they are to be understood as denoting the need of that provision for the soul which God has made by my coming into the world.
John 6:63 The Spirit gives life; the flesh counts for nothing. The words I have spoken to you are spirit and they are life.
To sum up he says you must be willing to suffer what he was willing to. That is what is meant by drinking of the same cup.
3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness
This is only true when you take the literal as literal and the symbolic as symbolic. If you do the opposite then nothing makes sense and contradictions appear everywhere and the whole biblical narrative self destructs. But apparently Baha'i works fine when this is done. Just kidding. I have grown weary in showing you how your view is contradictory to every accepted view in Christianity over and over. If you want to believe what you do then be my guest but you can't even suggest it is compatable with orthedox or even non-fringe biblical theology. I have went back and reviewed, it seems the same situation exists between Baha'i and the Quran. I have done a suffecient job for my concience and do not promise more but have not ruled it out. I wish you well regardless..
 
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InvestigateTruth

Well-Known Member
As I told you the Hebrews (the ones who wrote the bible) have a well established system for evaluating scripture. It is literal unless a literal interpretation is impossible then you examine the parable interpretation.

How do you know, their "established system for evaluating the scriptures" is correct?
 

Arcjahad

New Member
I say the Koran is false due to a simple word, every Prophet,The Messiah and all Apostles all knew the personal NAME of the Creator unlike Muhammed who was give a title because Allah simply means God in Arabic it's not a name. I know the bible uses LORD in place of YHWH but that is done because of a false tradition and a violation of the 3rd commandment
 

InvestigateTruth

Well-Known Member
Since Christian means follower of Christ then to suggest that he didn't write for his followers is rather silly.
But you seem to be missing the point.The point is how do you differentiate between one who calles himself Christian but doesn't actually follow Christ, and one who actually follows the commandments of the Father? So, my point is, just by calling one Christian, it does not prove, he would in practice follows Christ, neither understands the Bible.




Also, according to the Bible, in Return of Christ, He and His Followers are called by a new name:



Rev. 3:12 " Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God: and I will write upon him my new name."


So, the above verse in our view says, Christ would come with a new name, and He would write on the ones who would remain to live during the new Age and believes in Him, His new name.
In our view, that Name is "Baha"
 
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InvestigateTruth

Well-Known Member
He was a messenger for the Jews not the messenger.

Again it seems you ignored the point. Moses prophesized about Messiah, who would be a world Messenger. The point is, you are saying for the past 2 thousands years, understanding of Bible is stablished by Christians, therefore it is impossible they could make major mistakes regarding interpretaion of Bible.
Before Jesus, the Jews also stablished the interpretation of Bible for more than 1000 years, but they didn't accept Jesus as the Messiah, because they had a different interpretation of their own Book.
So, how do you know that Christians understood the interpretation of Bible? Simply because they are called "Christians"?
 

InvestigateTruth

Well-Known Member
When Jesus looked up and saw a great crowd coming toward him, he said to Philip, "Where shall we buy bread for these people to eat?"
Why are they discussing the actual price of actual bread if this is sipritual? Since they all knew that spiritual things can not be gained for money why all the money references?



Please note that, if Philip really thought Jesus is talking about buying a physical bread and spoke of money, he failed the test of Jesus, Philip perhaps did not realize Jesus is talking about heavenly bread. Philip was only a human who was learning from the Teacher, and Jesus by giving them parables was teaching them.

If you continue reading the story, you will see Jesus explains to them what He really meant:

Verily, verily, I say unto you, Ye seek me, not because ye saw the miracles, but because ye did eat of the loaves, and were filled. 6:27 Labour not for the meat which perisheth, but for that meat which endureth unto everlasting life, which the Son of man shall give unto you: for him hath God the Father sealed. 6:28

Thus it is clear, Jesus was talking about an everlasting food, not a physical food, which perishes.
This becomes more evident if you continue reading, until you get to the part which says:

“Verily, verily, I say unto you, Moses gave you not that bread from heaven; but my Father giveth you the true bread from heaven. 6:33 For the bread of God is he which cometh down from heaven, and giveth life unto the world.” 6:34

In my view, Jesus actually gave the interpretation of it if you would like to see it!

Also:

The Christ said: “I am the living bread which came down from heaven, that a man may eat thereof and not die.”

Since Jesus was the “Word of God” his words and teachings gave power to the spirit like a spiritual heavenly food.

63rd verse says: “It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing.”
 
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1robin

Christian/Baptist
How do you know, their "established system for evaluating the scriptures" is correct?
I know of no case of their methods produceing a result that was later judged to be wrong. These rules go back thousands of years and have survived more scrutiny than any other text ever has by many times over. They sure are not superceeded by a guy who invented a religion that attempts to reconcile the unreconcileable and interprets almost everything an impossible and contradictory way.
 
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