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Question (about the bible versions)

Dentonz

Member
criticizer said:
Hi
How are you freind ?

I heard that there is king james bible , and there are other bible versions, I want from you to write it , and what is the different between it ?

And what is the different between the chatolic and brotestant and orthodox ??
Hello, I believe the best translation is the one you will read. You can not gain any knowledge of the word unless you read it.

And the differences between the faiths you mentioned are all man made. If you want to know what God wants you to do; read his word. The Bible says to work out your own salvation with fear and trembling. Don't try to follow religion, find your relationship with Jesus Christ.
 

Scuba Pete

Le plongeur avec attitude...
We can debate how many angels can dance on the head of a needle, but why?

As Detonz said, the best version is the one you read. The english translations are just THAT. Like any translation, there will be idiosyncrasies and the like. So what? God is more than powerful to work through all these to change a man's heart: that he might seek and subsequently FIND the living God.

BTW, as you look at the various sects, realise that there are many of us who don't belong to ANY of them: we are merely Christians. We will not ascribe to any other label.
 

greatcalgarian

Well-Known Member
SPLogan said:
:bonk:


This is partly why, several hundred years ago, the Catholic Church did not allow Scripture to be translated into the common languages of the day. There's no way to translate it in a way that won't be misunderstood. You would have the same problem in translating any ancient writings, but most people don't care- because most ancient writings don't carry profound religious significance.
The Greek already made a translation from Hebrew for the OT, and there is no clear indication whether the NT was written in Hebrew, Aramic, or Greek. So before Catholic stopped other people from translating, and stuck to the Latin version, and all priests must study Latin, is not trying to maintain the original meaning of the scripture, but is more like the monopoly of the Catholic church so that not many will question how those chosen to be priests interprete the scripture.
 

James the Persian

Dreptcredincios Crestin
greatcalgarian said:
The Greek already made a translation from Hebrew for the OT, and there is no clear indication whether the NT was written in Hebrew, Aramic, or Greek. So before Catholic stopped other people from translating, and stuck to the Latin version, and all priests must study Latin, is not trying to maintain the original meaning of the scripture, but is more like the monopoly of the Catholic church so that not many will question how those chosen to be priests interprete the scripture.
Jews, not Greeks, translated the OT into Koine, producing the Septuagint, though this was done at the request of the (Greek) Ptolemaic Pharaoh. There's also a lot of evidence that the NT was, in fact, written in Koine. I'm told by various Greek priests (my Greek knowledge being nowhere near good enough to see this) that you can see when reading some of the texts that the author was not a native Greek speaker but someone for whom Koine was a second language and, given the status of Koine as the lingua franca of the eastern mediterranean even before the Roman Empire, it certainly would have made more sense to use it than, say, Aramaic. It's also worth noting that the Aramaic Pe****ta is a more recent translation from Koine rather than an older text. The undivided Catholic Church did not exclusively use Latin, this was a post-Schism Roman Catholic idea. In the east, missionary activities generally began by translating the Bible into the local language and, apart from a reasonably brief peculiar period when the Romanians used Slavonic, the Scriptures and the Liturgy have always been in the vernacular.

James
 

greatcalgarian

Well-Known Member
JamesThePersian said:
Jews, not Greeks, translated the OT into Koine, producing the Septuagint, though this was done at the request of the (Greek) Ptolemaic Pharaoh. There's also a lot of evidence that the NT was, in fact, written in Koine. I'm told by various Greek priests (my Greek knowledge being nowhere near good enough to see this) that you can see when reading some of the texts that the author was not a native Greek speaker but someone for whom Koine was a second language and, given the status of Koine as the lingua franca of the eastern mediterranean even before the Roman Empire, it certainly would have made more sense to use it than, say, Aramaic. It's also worth noting that the Aramaic Pe****ta is a more recent translation from Koine rather than an older text. The undivided Catholic Church did not exclusively use Latin, this was a post-Schism Roman Catholic idea. In the east, missionary activities generally began by translating the Bible into the local language and, apart from a reasonably brief peculiar period when the Romanians used Slavonic, the Scriptures and the Liturgy have always been in the vernacular.

James
Thansk for the clarification.
 

Scuba Pete

Le plongeur avec attitude...
Mostly,

the KJV uses an obsolete dialect of English. Why study scripture that is written in a language that you can not comprehend!
 

greatcalgarian

Well-Known Member
NetDoc said:
Mostly,

the KJV uses an obsolete dialect of English. Why study scripture that is written in a language that you can not comprehend!
So go and learn the obsolete dialect of English to fully comprehend the Bible. Remember early priests have to study Latin in order to be able to understand the bible fully.:D
 

James the Persian

Dreptcredincios Crestin
greatcalgarian said:
So go and learn the obsolete dialect of English to fully comprehend the Bible. Remember early priests have to study Latin in order to be able to understand the bible fully.:D
Why? None of the Bible was written in Latin. I always find it rather strange that people go to the effort of learning a dead language just so that they can read an old translation.

James
 

Scott1

Well-Known Member
greatcalgarian said:
Remember early priests have to study Latin in order to be able to understand the bible fully.:D
Most religious orders I know teach Greek and Hebrew to seminarians BEFORE Latin.... and Latin is not taught to Priest for Bible study, but for the Liturgy.... they start to learn (at least Jesuits) Greek in the first (of 13 years) year of studies.
 

sandy whitelinger

Veteran Member
NetDoc said:
Mostly,

the KJV uses an obsolete dialect of English. Why study scripture that is written in a language that you can not comprehend!
Yet it is quite comprehensible. I even know children who understand, "For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life."
 

Scuba Pete

Le plongeur avec attitude...
Not really... the KJV's rendition of I Corinthians 13 really screws things up for us. BTW, I don't see you writing in that style... why? It is indeed obsolete, and there is NO scriptural reason to use it over a translation into modern English. Only spiritual arrogance and nearsightedness. :D

Mark 7:6 He replied, "Isaiah was right when he prophesied about you hypocrites; as it is written:
" 'These people honor me with their lips,
but their hearts are far from me.
7 They worship me in vain;
their teachings are but rules taught by men.' 8 You have let go of the commands of God and are holding on to the traditions of men." NIV
 

greatcalgarian

Well-Known Member
JamesThePersian said:
Why? None of the Bible was written in Latin. I always find it rather strange that people go to the effort of learning a dead language just so that they can read an old translation.

James
I believe the reason is to go to the original earliest version, so that the error transmitted in translation can be avoided.
 

greatcalgarian

Well-Known Member
Scott1 said:
Most religious orders I know teach Greek and Hebrew to seminarians BEFORE Latin.... and Latin is not taught to Priest for Bible study, but for the Liturgy.... they start to learn (at least Jesuits) Greek in the first (of 13 years) year of studies.
Latin Bible, or 'Vulgate'. Translated from the Hebrew and Aramaic by Jerome between 382 and 405 CE, this text became knowns as the 'versio vulgata', which means 'common translation'. The collection and order of the books which make up this version of the Bible differs slightly from the ones in the King James Version, it includes several of the Apocrypha.

The Vulgate was the standard version of the Bible for Roman Catholics for over one and a half millenia. Since Latin was only studied by priests and scholars, the vast majority of people could not read or understand the Vulgate, even though they would hear passages from it every time they went to church.

Until 1450, when Gutenberg printed this text, copies were also very rare and expensive. During the Protestant reformation in the 14th and 15th centuries, the Bible was finally translated into modern languages, against great resistance from the Church. Finally in the mid-20th Century, the Roman Catholic church abandoned the use of Latin for liturgy. However, this remains one of the most historically important Latin texts.
I thought the Septuagint was not referred to by early Catholics until the 16th century, with the birth of the Protestants, and hence the revival of the Greek version since Luther did not trust the Latin translation used by Pope and the Catholics during that time?
 

greatcalgarian

Well-Known Member
This is a fact?


We do not have any of the original manuscripts of the books that have been included in the Bible. All we have is copies of copies. Most of the original manuscripts of the Old Testament were written in Hebrew, although a few chapters of Ezra and Daniel were recorded in Aramaic, the language of Jesus. The books of the New Testament were first written in Greek. The first translations of the Bible were of the Hebrew Bible. The Septuagint (SEP-too-a-jint) was a Greek translation written about three centuries before the birth of Christ. Two other early translations, composed after the birth of Christ, were the Pe****ta in Syriac and the Vulgate in Latin. These three translations, the Septuagint, Pe****ta, and Vulgate became the official translations of the Old Testament for the Greek-, Syriac-, and Latin-speaking churches respectively. Each also became the basis for other translations of the Bible.
 

greatcalgarian

Well-Known Member
In fact, English bible is near to the last language used


In the Middle Ages, the Latin Vulgate was not read by many people. For one thing, not a lot of copies were available because manuscripts were transcribed by hand and therefore were expensive. Although laity were not forbidden to read the Bible, often they were discouraged from doing so. Parish priests seldom had access to a Bible either.

One result of Gutenberg's invention of the printing press (1456) was that more Bibles were made distributed at less expense. At least 92 editions of the Vulgate were printed before 1500. The following translations also appeared:

  • first complete German Bible (1466), 22 editions by 1522
  • a Spanish Bible (1478) was forbidden and burned, another translation appeared (1492)
  • two different Italian Bibles (1471)
  • Dutch Bible minus the Psalms (1477), complete (1477)
  • two Czech Bibles (1488 and 1489)


Not counting the no longer existing John Wycliffe "Morningstar of the Reformation" version, but this is the heretic copy! Tyndale may be the best earliest translation. We also have Coverdale, Cranver, Geneva, Bishop, before the KJV came into existence.

Since English version came in so late, it is best to trust the Vulgate.
 

James the Persian

Dreptcredincios Crestin
greatcalgarian said:
This is a fact?
Mostly, yes. The Pe****ta, however, is a kind of combined single gospel compiled from the 4 canonical gospels and has nothing to do with the Old Testament at all. It is a translation from Greek into Aramaic and to the best of my knowledge is no longer used even by the Syriac churches.

You are quite wrong, however, about the Septuagint. It was always the OT version of the Church, at least up until St. Jerome translated the Vulgate. In the east no other version of the Old Testament has ever been used up to this day and we still use all of the Septuagint, including several books the RCs no longer use. There was no adoption of the Septuagint after the Reformation, rather the reformers rejected the Septuagint in favour of new translations from the Masoretic Text.

In addition, given that there are certain errors in the original Vulgate, which have since been corrected by the RCC (one notable one being the warning about Eve's descendants crushing the serpent's head in Genesis), I'd say that it is certainly better to go backl to the Greek than the Vulgate. We may not have the original manuscripts but what we do have are not translations and are pretty consistent as far as possible copyist's errors and the like are involved. I still fail to see any reason for preferring an old translation over the older original text.

James
 

greatcalgarian

Well-Known Member
JamesThePersian said:
You are quite wrong, however, about the Septuagint. It was always the OT version of the Church, at least up until St. Jerome translated the Vulgate. In the east no other version of the Old Testament has ever been used up to this day and we still use all of the Septuagint, including several books the RCs no longer use. There was no adoption of the Septuagint after the Reformation, rather the reformers rejected the Septuagint in favour of new translations from the Masoretic Text.
James
What I am saying is that prior to AD400, the 'church' mostly used the Septuagint, since of the early Christians are not Jews, and they did not use the Hebrew version. Once Jerome translated the Vulgate, that was the authentic book used by the Catholic until 1600, when the reformation protestants started to question Rome authority in the interpretation. I believe they then used both the Hebrew to Torah or whatever it was called and the Septuagint together to produce all the newer translated version.
 

joeboonda

Well-Known Member
Here is some information: The King James Version differs from the newer versions 5% of the time. Because it was written from the body of manuscripts called the Textus Receptus, or Recieved Text. For the new testament, there are 5,309 surviving Greek manuscripts which agree 95% of the time, exactly. The modern versions also used the Textus Receptus, but it disagreed with two very old, yet very corrupted manuscripts; the Vaticanus and the Siniaticus, they preferred the corrupted manuscripts over the Textus Receptus, accounting for the 5% corruption in the modern versions. Here are some examples:
I Timothy 3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness, GOD was MANIFEST IN THE FLESH...KJV
I Timothy 3:16 And by common confession great is the mystery of godliness: HE WHO WAS REVEALED IN THE FLESH...NASB

KJV says GOD was manifest in the flesh, meaning Jesus is GOD, very important for the doctrine of the diety of Christ.

Romans 14:10b,12: For we shall all stand before the judgement seat of CHRIST...So then every one of us shall give account fo himself to GOD. KJV

Romans14:10b,12: For we shall all stand before the judgement seat of GOD...So then each of us shall give account of himself to GOD. NASB

One word is changed, erasing the diety of Christ. Pretty tricky.

Here is one more on Christ's Diety:

Acts 20:28 ...to feed the church of GOD which he hath puchased with HIS OWN blood. KJV
Acts 20:28 ...to care for the church of God which he obtained with the blood of HIS OWN SON. RSV
God's church was bought by God's blood, therefore CHRIST is GOD, RSV separates Christ from God proving nothing.

Well, there are MANY verses that attack the doctrine of the diety of Christ, the virgin birth, atonement by faith, the physical resurrection of Christ, and His Second Coming. I have a bunch, but, not the time. A good book is "Lets Weigh the Evidence" by Barry Burton, get at local Christian Bookstore. Peace!!
 
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