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Are the gospels reliable historical documents? // YES

joelr

Well-Known Member
Ok so who was the James the supposed brother of Jesus in the gospels?

Was he the same James that Paul mentions? Was he James the Apostole? Or was mark just inventing random names, and “James” happened to be the name that he chose for Jesus´s older brother?

I don't know. It looks like Mark kept the James Apostole and gave Jesus a family and decided James was a good name to use.

Yes but in the context of Galatians Paul is Cleary implying that Peter and the Apostles where not “brothers” (only James) implying that he meant biological brother…….. if he would have meant “spiritual brother” he would have not excluded Peter and the Apostles from that label.

I though we dealt with this?

"the James thus called a brother of the Lord is being differentiated from Cephas (Peter) the Apostle. As I wrote in my summary, that’s indeed true: Paul is making a distinction; he uses the full term for a Christian (“Brothers of the Lord”) every time he needs to distinguish apostolic from non-apostolic Christians. The James in Galatians 1 is not an Apostle. He is just a rank-and-file Christian. Merely a Brother of the Lord, not an Apostolic Brother of the Lord. The only Apostle he met at that time, he says, was Cephas (Peter), the first Apostle (according to 1 Corinthians 15:5 in light of 1 Corinthians 9:1). Likewise the “Brothers of the Lord” Paul references in 1 Corinthians 9:5 are, again, non-apostolic Christians—and thus being distinguished from Apostles, including, again, the first Apostle, Cephas.




Another important point is that Josephus talks about the death of James, something that is not present in the gospels, this means that Josephus didn’t use mark as a source, because Mark doesn’t talk about the death of James. .. so Josephus had other sources that also identify james as the brother of Jesus.

No, there are 2 opinions among two leading NT scholars - it's entirely all a late addition by Christians (this is backed up by many lines of argument and several scholars which I linked to.)
The other version was Bart Ehrman demonstrated what the original text might have been stripped of what was later added by Christians. It did not mention James.


Also keep in mind that the historical existence of James is corroborated in multiple independent sources, and none of this sources denied that James is the biological brother of Jesus,

Later sources are not reliable. There are known examples of Eusebius fabricating history. Carrier wrote this on information he got from attending a seminar on Eusebius which was open to members of the Westar Institute.
How To Fabricate History: The Example of Eusebius on Alexandrian Christianity • Richard Carrier

Christian church fathers have been caught multiple times doctoring historical documents and making false documents to prop up the historicity of Christianity. The fake Epistles are one big thing. Another answer to the question why would someone lie?

Sources that come after gospel stories are too late to be eyewitnesses and are again re-telling gospel stories.

The Testimonian Flavium has been shown to be forged for multiple reasons.

"Goldberg also shows that the Testimonium contains vocabulary and phrasing that is particularly Christian (indeed, Lukan) and un-Josephan. He concludes that this means either a Christian wrote it or Josephus slavishly copied a Christian source, and contrary to what Goldberg concludes, the latter is wholly implausible (Josephus would treat such a source more critically, creatively, and informedly)."

Further evidence that the longer reference is a Christian fabrication lies in an article I didn’t cite, however, but that is nevertheless required reading on the matter: G.J. Goldberg, “The Coincidences of the Testimonium of Josephus and the Emmaus Narrative of Luke,” in the Journal for the Study of the Pseudepigrapha (vol. 13, 1995), pp. 59-77. Goldberg demonstrates nineteen unique correspondences between Luke’s Emmaus account and the Testimonium Flavianum, all nineteen in exactly the same order
Jesus in Josephus • Richard Carrier



The other gospels where not illegal, nor hidden, the documents have always been available for anyone interested in reading them ,

For over 100 years all of the gospels and belief systems were flourishing. Including the first official canon the Marcionite canon. From reading letters of Bishop Ignatious it's clear he was looking for a power structure, priests, bishops, and only those of certain bloodlines could interpret scripture and teach. After reading Elaine Pagels book I was amazed at how much of the power grab the church was. The Gnostic groups were much more open to women leaders and all members reading and interpreting scripture.

The gospel of Thomas was a myth, like King Arthur or Robbin Hood, you don’t have the accuracy of geographical, historical political and demographic details that you have in the canonical gospels.

Jesus is a myth like King Arthur and he scores higher on the RR mythotype scale. The gospels are myths, written in mythic literature, parables, copied stories and a narrative completely mythic. Myths do contain locations, geography and polotics. Histories are written with sources and motivations and commentaries on odd events at the least.

The Thomas gospel is simply a list of sayings. But some of the sayings match the synoptic gospel sayings but the resurrection and events are not spoken about. Some scholars believe it was written before Mark had created the story of Jesus on Earth.
 

joelr

Well-Known Member
Well most scholars believe that the gospels are from the genera of Greco-Roman biographies, Carrier claims that they are myth (like Hercules, ) what evidence suggests that they are myth?

That same article also says:

All four were anonymous (the modern names were added in the 2nd century), almost certainly none were by eyewitnesses,
the authors of Matthew and Luke, acting independently, used Mark for their narrative of Jesus's career, supplementing it with the collection of sayings called the Q document and additional material unique to each;[15] and there is a near-consensus that John had its origins as a "signs" source (or gospel) that circulated within a Johannine community.[16] The contradictions and discrepancies between the first three and John make it impossible to accept both traditions as equally reliable.[

So it's really just Mark.

The narrative scores 18 out of 22 on the Rank Ragalin myth scale, higher than King Arthur.
The lack of sources and similar is a myth device:

"First of all, before even identifying or examining these literary constructs, allegories, and prospective elements of myth, we can already see by reading the Gospels that they fail to show any substantive content of being actual researched histories. Nowhere in the Gospels do they ever name their sources of information, nor do they read as eye witness testimonies (nor do they identify themselves as such), nor is it mentioned why any sources used would be accurate to rely upon. The authors never discuss any historical method used, nor do they acknowledge how some contents may be less accurate than others, nor do they mention alternate possibilities of the events given the limited information they had from their sources. They never express amazement or any degree of rational skepticism no matter how implausible an event within the story may be — something we would expect from any rational historian (even one living in antiquity). The authors never explain why they changed what their sources said, nor do they even acknowledge that they did such a thing in the first place — despite the fact that Matthew and Luke clearly relied on Mark as a source (as did John, though less obviously so), for example, and then they all redacted Mark’s version as needed to serve their own literary and theological purposes"

There are endless examples of how Mark is taking Paul's letters and transforming them into a real story:
Mark's Use of Paul's Epistles • Richard Carrier

Examples of older stories being transformed into Jesus stories:

"
Only a few verses later, we read about the rest of the crucifixion narrative and find a link (a literary source) with the Book of Psalms in the Old Testament (OT):

Mark 15.24: “They part his garments among them, casting lots upon them.”

Psalm 22:18: “They part my garments among them, and cast lots upon them.”

Mark 15.29-31: “And those who passed by blasphemed him, shaking their heads and saying, ‘…Save yourself…’ and mocked him, saying ‘He who saved others cannot save himself!’ ”

Psalm 22.7-8: “All those who see me mock me and give me lip, shaking their head, saying ‘He expected the lord to protect him, so let the lord save him if he likes.’ ”

Mark 15.34: “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”

Psalm 22.1: “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”"


Later a Kings narrative is transformed line by line to reflect the message of the gospels - the least shall be first:

"Earlier in Mark (chapter 5), we hear about another obviously fictional story about Jesus resurrecting a girl (the daughter of a man named Jairus) from the dead, this miracle serving as another obvious marker of myth, but adding to that implausibility is the fact that the tale is actually a rewrite of another mythical story, told of Elisha in 2 Kings 4.17-37 as found in the OT, and also the fact that there are a number of very improbable coincidences found within the story itself.

Ring cycles, a common mythic literary device:

"Another way Mark develops this theme is through an elegant ring composition, another common literary device popular at the time (used in myth as well as in history). In the central part of Mark’s narrative (revolving around Jesus’ travel by sea), Mark carefully crafted nested cycles of themes specifically to convey an underlying message about faith and one’s ability (or lack thereof) to understand the gospel. Here is what the ring structure looks like:


Cycle 1:

Phase 1 (4.1-34) — Jesus with crowds by the sea (preaching from a boat)

Phase 2 (4.35-41) — Eventful crossing of the sea

Phase 3 (5.1-20) — Landing with healings/exorcisms

Interval 1: Step 1 (5.21-43) — First stop (after an uneventful boating)

Step 2 (6.1-6) — Second stop

Step 3 (6.6-29) — Going around

Cycle 2:

Phase 1 (6.30-44) — Jesus with crowds by the sea (with an uneventful boating)

Phase 2 (6.45-52) — Eventful crossing of the sea

Phase 3 (6.53-55) — Landing with healings/exorcisms

Interval 2: Step 1 (6.56-7.23) — Going around

Step 2 (7.24-30) — First stop

Step 3 (7.31-37) — Second stop

Cycle 3:

Phase 1 (8.1-12) — Jesus with crowds by the sea (with an uneventful boating)

Phase 2 (8.13-21) — Eventful crossing of the sea

Phase 3 (8.22-26) — Landing with healings/exorcisms



Here Mark uses a Jesus ben Ananias narrative:

1 – Both are named Jesus. (Mark 14.2 = JW 6.301)

2 – Both come to Jerusalem during a major religious festival. (Mark 11.15-17 = JW 6.301)

3 -Both entered the temple area to rant against the temple. (Mark 14.2 = JW 6.301)

4 – During which both quote the same chapter of Jeremiah. (Jer. 7.11 in Mk, Jer. 7.34 in JW)

5 – Both then preach daily in the temple. (Mark 14.49 = JW 6.306)

6 – Both declared “woe” unto Judea or the Jews. (Mark 13.17 = JW 6.304, 306, 309)

7 – Both predict the temple will be destroyed. (Mark 13.2 = JW 6.300, 309)

8 – Both are for this reason arrested by the Jews. (Mark 14.43 = JW 6.302)

9 – Both are accused of speaking against the temple. (Mark 14.58 = JW 6.302)

10 – Neither makes any defense of himself against the charges. (Mark 14.60 = JW 6.302)

11 – Both are beaten by the Jews. (Mark 14.65 = JW 6.302)
12 – Then both are taken to the Roman governor. (Pilate in Mark 15.1 = Albinus in JW 6.302)

13 – Both are interrogated by the Roman governor. (Mark 15.2-4 = JW 6.305)

14 – During which both are asked to identify themselves. (Mark 15.2 = JW 6.305)

15 – And yet again neither says anything in his defense. (Mark 15.3-5 = JW 6.305)

16 – Both are then beaten by the Romans. (Mark 15.15 = JW 6.304)

17 – In both cases the Roman governor decides he should release him. (Mark 14.2 = JW 6.301)

18 – But doesn’t (Mark)…but does (JW) — (Mark 15.6-15 = JW 6.305)

19 – Both are finally killed by the Romans: in Mark, by execution; in the JW, by artillery. (Mark 15.34 = JW 6.308-9)

20 – Both utter a lament for themselves immediately before they die. (Mark 15.34 = JW 6.309)

21 – Both die with a loud cry. (Mark 15.37 = JW 6.309)

The odds of these coincidences arising by chance is quite small to say the least, so it appears Mark used this Jesus as a model for his own to serve some particular literary or theological purpose. In any case, we can see that Mark is writing fiction here, through and through.

It’s really quite brilliantly crafted when you look at it: three triadically composed intervals, each of which contains one triadically composite minimal unit. Furthermore, every “Phase 1” in all cycles, takes place during the day and describes Jesus’ actions with crowds on one side of the sea. Every “Phase 2” occurs on the evening of that same day (though not stated explicitly in Cycle 3’s “Phase 2”, it is implied by what would have been a long sea crossing), and also describes actions between Jesus and the twelve disciples in the boat while in transit across the sea. Each “Phase 3” represents Jesus’ healing (and/or exorcising) of people who either come to him or that are brought to him following his arrival on the other side of the sea. Then there are other healings or exorcisms that are interspersed among the intervals that follow each “Phase 3”. Each cycle of this triad occupies one day, so the whole ring structure represents three days, ending with a resolution on the third day — all of which concludes by transitioning into a debate regarding who Jesus really is and what the gospel really is (Mark 8.27-9.1, which is the first time we hear Jesus speak about any of this himself).

There are many many more examples.
 

joelr

Well-Known Member
The passage of James by Josephus is largely uncontroversial and accepted by modern scholars as authentic.

It is not at all? The latest scholarship completely dismantles the TV. Did you actually just say "uncontroversial"????

G.J. Goldberg demonstrated so many coincidences between the Testimonium and a core segment of the Emmaus narrative in Luke 24 that accident is no longer a plausible explanation.
Linguist Paul Hopper demonstrates extensively and formally that the TF is so wildly contrary to how Josephus tells stories that it can’t have been written by him; and that the TF in fact matches another genre of literature so perfectly—the Christian creedal statement—that wholesale forgery is by far the most likely explanation of it.

besides those observations, six things in all have changed since opinions were last declared on this subject:
  • Reliance on the Arabic version of the Testimonium must be discarded.
  • Attempts to invent a pared-down version of what Josephus wrote are untenable.
  • The Testimonium derives from the New Testament.
  • The Testimonium doesn’t match Josephan narrative practice or context.
  • The Testimonium matches Eusebian more than Josephan style.
  • Previous opinions on the James passage were unaware of new findings, and therefore require revision.
  • The TF doesn’t fit the context of JA 18.62 and 65 (e.g. it does not describe “a disaster befalling the Jews” nor explain the rising tensions between Jews and Romans leading to war).
  • The TF is implausible from a Pharisaic Jew (e.g. calling Jesus the messiah; saying he fulfilled prophecy).
  • The TF is improbably brief (just contrast it with the religious controversy immediately following in the JA, covered in eight times more length, yet on a far more trivial incident).
  • The TF is improbably obscure (contrast how Josephus writes about other sects, teachings, and actions, and how he always explains obscure terms like “Christ” or “Christian”).
  • The TF was unknown to Origen (despite his explicit search of Josephus for Jesus material in his answer to Celsus) and all other Christian authors before the 4th century.
  • Rewriting the TF to ‘solve’ these problems is always baseless speculation, not empirical argument.
Josephus on Jesus? Why You Can't Cite Opinions Before 2014 • Richard Carrier





But it remains unexplainable why is it that Mark labeled James as a biological brother, when he was a “spiritual brother”

James could have been a spiritual brother in Mark and nothing in the gospels would change,

Mark did take the spiritual brother James and add him to the story and he also created a family with brothers and sisters.
One brother was named James. So?


Because Josephus provides details about James that are not found in mark , this means that Josephus had other sources…

The scholarship above shows there is serious doubt about Josephus among scholarship. In Ehrmans version there was no mention of James. Why am I repeating this over and over?



I dont see the point, sure Simon and Andrew where biological brothers and they both where disciples.

No, Andrew was the brother of St Peter. So when Mark wrote that he was using the word to mean "brother of the Lord".


"


ok that source indicates that Mark thought of Jesus as a historical person. whats your point?
No, they said Mark "probably" relied on miracle stories and such. They don't know. Well, now we have a much clearer picture of what Mark was writing and it wasn't historical.


I am confused, did paul and peter had the same vision? Did paul copied form peter? Did peter copied from paul?
ok that source indicates that Mark thought of Jesus as a historical person. whats your point?

Who had the vision of the guy named Jesus that was crucified, buried and resurrected?

(this is an honest question) [/QUOTE]

Peter is mentioned briefly in Paul's letters. Paul had a vision. It had nothing to do with a crucifixion or burial. Just that Jesus died and rose. It could have been in the celestial realms. Other savior gods had gone through their death/resurrection in the lower heavens. Jesus was thought to rule in the heavenly version of the temple which was in the upper atmosphere.
The crucifixion, burial and all that is a story set on Earth Mark wrote. Paul knew of no Earthly Jesus. Many of his letters were destroyed so who knows what else he said about Jesus. At this time none of the stories in Mark had existed.




Ok so that James is not the same james that Paul mentioned?

We know Mark used Pauls letters and used James the apostle. But he added a James brother.


.
But where the followers real historical people?

I mean they interacted with them in myths. There were followers of Jesus in Pauls letters who had also claimed visions.
Stories in Mark about followers are likely made up stories. He took the names from Paul and created a narrative. The actions of people dropping their lives and leaving families during an extremely hard time to survive is not likely. Those tales about followers are stories.

More points in favor of the brotherhood of James, The church likes to proclaim the Marry was a virgin during her whole life, So if anything the brothers of Jesus was an embracing detail because it proves that Marry was not a virgin her whole life.

As much as I hate apologetics, I was curious:

"Matthew refers to these “brothers” of Jesus as being the sons of another Mary in Matthew 27:56, whom John refers to as “Mary wife of Clopas” and the “sister” of Jesus’ mother in John 19:25. Whether John is using “sister” in the literal or more general sense, the relation this Mary has with Jesus’ mother would make the “brothers” of the Lord his cousins."
If Paul Meant “ Spiritual brother” the church fathers would have been happy to accept that interpretation
[/QUOTE]

The church fathers have been caught multiple times making stuff up? I gave you links to several scholarly arguments against Eusubieus and the other.
They were accepting the gospels as real events as we all know. Just like the Roman army all accepted stories of Mithras as literally true and whatever other 100+ gods and demigods were around, their followers accepted their gospels as true.

Church fathers citing late references to Jesus were way after the fact and definitely already reading gospels and taking them literal.

I don't see why historicity is important to you anyways because it just means a guy was teaching reformed Judaism and the gospels came along and spun a wildly fictitious myth. Just like the 38 other gospels did.
 

leroy

Well-Known Member
I don't know. It looks like Mark kept the James Apostole and gave Jesus a family and decided James was a good name to use.

So of all the names that Mark could have invented, he happened to invented James, the exact same name that Paul used.



I though we dealt with this?

"the James thus called a brother of the Lord is being differentiated from Cephas (Peter) the Apostle. As I wrote in my summary, that’s indeed true: Paul is making a distinction; he uses the full term for a Christian (“Brothers of the Lord”) every time he needs to distinguish apostolic from non-apostolic Christians. The James in Galatians 1 is not an Apostle. He is just a rank-and-file Christian. Merely a Brother of the Lord, not an Apostolic Brother of the Lord. The only Apostle he met at that time, he says, was Cephas (Peter), the first Apostle (according to 1 Corinthians 15:5 in light of 1 Corinthians 9:1). Likewise the “Brothers of the Lord” Paul references in 1 Corinthians 9:5 are, again, non-apostolic Christians—and thus being distinguished from Apostles, including, again, the first Apostle, Cephas.

Corintians 9:5 is also talking about biological brothers.


Corintians 9:5 i
Don't we have the right to take a believing wife along with us, as do the other apostles and the Lord's brothers and Cephas?

What the passage is implying is that all the brothers of Jesus had wifes, so unless you argue that all “spiritual brothers” where married. (which would be unlikely) it seems obvious that Paul is talking about biological brothers.


No, there are 2 opinions among two leading NT scholars - it's entirely all a late addition by Christians (this is backed up by many lines of argument and several scholars which I linked to.)
The other version was Bart Ehrman demonstrated what the original text might have been stripped of what was later added by Christians. It did not mention James.
there is no controversy the quote from Josephus is autentic
Modern scholarship has almost universally acknowledged the authenticity of the reference to "the brother of Jesus, who was called Christ, whose name was James
there is no controversy, the passage is authentic (at worst some minor and unimportant details where changed)
Modern scholarship has almost universally acknowledged the authenticity of the reference to "the brother of Jesus, who was called Christ, whose name was James
Josephus on Jesus - Wikipedia.



Later sources are not reliable. There are known examples of Eusebius fabricating history. Carrier wrote this on information he got from attending a seminar on Eusebius which was open to members of the Westar Institute.
How To Fabricate History: The Example of Eusebius on Alexandrian Christianity • Richard Carrier

the issue is the complete silence, even though James is widely described in multiple sources (perhaps more than any other Jew form the 1st century) nobody mentioned nor implied that he was a “spiritual brother”

.-----

So it is basically a probabilistic argument,

What is more likely

1There was a Jewish man named James and had a brother named Jesus

2

a) Paul meant spiritual brother in galatians and corintians despite the fact that the most obvious interpretation is that he was talking about biological brothers

b) Mark invented random names and he happened to invent “James” to describe Jesu´s older brother

C) the consensus of scolars is wrong and the passage of James is fake

D) Church fathers also lied, despite the fact that they had theological motivs to remove the “brotherness” of James

E) No competing sources dismisses the “lie” that James was not a biological brother


I agree that none of this points by itself is “very unlikely” but if we add them all together I´ll say that Carrier is just “trying to hard” with this degree of skepticisms you could deny the “brotherness” of any historical character.
 

SeekingAllTruth

Well-Known Member
Excellent article on why we should be skeptical Jesus existed:

It would be easier, frankly, to believe that Tiberius Caesar, Jesus’ contemporary, was a figment of the imagination than to believe that there never was such a person as Jesus.
– N. T. Wright, Jesus and the Victory of God (Fortress, 1996)

we do have coins dating from the early first century that bear images of Tiberius....it is not surprising that there are no coins surviving from the first century with the image of Jesus on them


Did Jesus Exist? | American Atheists
 

leroy

Well-Known Member
Citation needed.

By the one, your whole response here is typical. Source after source was provided for you and all that you have is desperate denial.

Yes the source was provided, but I have no problem in providing the source again. …



Modern scholarship has almost universally acknowledged the authenticity of the reference to "the brother of Jesus, who was called Christ, whose name was James
Josephus on Jesus - Wikipedia
 

Subduction Zone

Veteran Member
Yes the source was provided, but I have no problem in providing the source again. …
Oh my! Epic! I mean Truly Epic Fail! The topic being discussed was the Testimonium Flavianum. From your own source:

The first and most extensive reference to Jesus in the Antiquities, found in Book 18, states that Jesus was the Messiah and a wise teacher who was crucified by Pontius Pilate. It is commonly called the Testimonium Flavianum.[1][3][4] Almost all modern scholars reject the authenticity of this passage in its present form, while the majority of scholars nevertheless hold that it contains an authentic nucleus referencing the execution of Jesus by Pilate, which was then subject to Christian interpolation or alteration.[
 

lukethethird

unknown member
Oh my! Epic! I mean Truly Epic Fail! The topic being discussed was the Testimonium Flavianum. From your own source:

The first and most extensive reference to Jesus in the Antiquities, found in Book 18, states that Jesus was the Messiah and a wise teacher who was crucified by Pontius Pilate. It is commonly called the Testimonium Flavianum.[1][3][4] Almost all modern scholars reject the authenticity of this passage in its present form, while the majority of scholars nevertheless hold that it contains an authentic nucleus referencing the execution of Jesus by Pilate, which was then subject to Christian interpolation or alteration.[
Not only a forgery but the so called "authentic nucleus" has zero evidence to support it, one single believer came up with the notion and it's been in an echo chamber ever since.
 
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Subduction Zone

Veteran Member
Not only a forgery but the so called "authentic nucleus" has zero evidence to support it, one single believer came up with the notion and it's been an echo chamber ever since.
What was ironic is that he had to skip right over the part that debunked his claim in the source that he himself chose to try to support it. There is a special kind of blindness that affects some believers. They do not lack in intelligence, but their own errors make it appear that they are far less intelligent than they actually are. How else does one explain making such an error. I did not even get to the source of his error, but I do know that some of the work of Josephus is well accepted. I also know that particular tidbit is not one of them. He must have conflated the two.
 

Subduction Zone

Veteran Member

joelr

Well-Known Member
So of all the names that Mark could have invented, he happened to invented James, the exact same name that Paul used.
Paul called an Apostle Paul, so did Mark. The rest he invented. If you haven't seen the gigantic amount of evidence we already have that he's writing fiction, some of which I already posted, you might want to check that out.
Even historians who believe in a historical Jesus do not support using the gospels as history.
That is exactly why they say they believe in a man named Jesus and very little can be known about his actual life.




Corintians 9:5 is also talking about biological brothers.

Historian says no, apologist say unclear.
Historian:

"Likewise the “Brothers of the Lord” Paul references in 1 Corinthians 9:5 are, again, non-apostolic Christians—and thus being distinguished from Apostles, including, again, the first Apostle, Cephas."

Christian apologist reference:

"It's unclear exactly who Paul means in his reference to "brothers of the Lord." Perhaps he means Jesus' actual half-brothers, born to Mary. Or this might mean "brothers" in the same sense as general Christian brotherhood. Or, it might be some other group entirely. In any case, Paul's main point is that he is not claiming his "right" to be supported by those he serves."

What the passage is implying is that all the brothers of Jesus had wifes, so unless you argue that all “spiritual brothers” where married. (which would be unlikely) it seems obvious that Paul is talking about biological brothers.

Not how it's explained by Christians:
What does 1 Corinthians 9:5 mean?


there is no controversy the quote from Josephus is autentic

there is no controversy, the passage is authentic (at worst some minor and unimportant details where changed)
Wait what?
If I presented several scholars explaining it's widely believed the passage to be fake (I did) that means there absolutely IS CONTROVERSY and to say otherwise is complete denial.


"Honestly. The evidence that the Testimonium Flavianum (or TF) is entirely a late Christian forgery is now as overwhelming as such evidence could ever get. Short of uncovering a pre-Eusebian manuscript, which is not going to happen. All extant manuscripts derive from the single manuscript of Eusebius; evidently everything else was decisively lost. The new article is by Paul Hopper, Distinguished Professor of the Humanities Emeritus at Carnegie Mellon University,"

Paul Hoppers paper:
"A Narrative Anomaly in Josephus" by Paul J. Hopper - Biblical Criticism & History Forum - earlywritings.com


"Further evidence that the longer reference is a Christian fabrication lies in an article I didn’t cite, however, but that is nevertheless required reading on the matter: G.J. Goldberg, “The Coincidences of the Testimonium of Josephus and the Emmaus Narrative of Luke,” in the Journal for the Study of the Pseudepigrapha (vol. 13, 1995), pp. 59-77. Goldberg demonstrates nineteen unique correspondences between Luke’s Emmaus account and the Testimonium Flavianum, all nineteen in exactly the same order (with some order and word variations only within each item)."

"A Narrative Anomaly in Josephus" by Paul J. Hopper - Biblical Criticism & History Forum - earlywritings.com


Carrier's paper:
Now that the world has ended, my peer reviewed article on Josephus just came out: “Origen, Eusebius, and the Accidental Interpolation in Josephus, Jewish Antiquities 20.200” in the Journal of Early Christian Studies 
(vol. 20, no. 4, Winter 2012), 
pp. 489-514.

Analysis of the evidence from the works of Origen, Eusebius, and Hegesippus concludes that the reference to “Christ” in Josephus, Jewish Antiquities 20.200 is probably an accidental interpolation or scribal emendation and that the passage was never originally about Christ or Christians. It referred not to James the brother of Jesus Christ, but probably to James the brother of the Jewish high priest Jesus ben Damneus.





the issue is the complete silence, even though James is widely described in multiple sources (perhaps more than any other Jew form the 1st century) nobody mentioned nor implied that he was a “spiritual brother”
The only mentions are Mark's fiction and people who read Mark and wanted to convince people their myth was actually real.
Early Christians are already known to have created propaganda documents to prop up the movement. This is why many of Paul's works are considered to be late forgeries as well as Josephus. This is a known thing. All of these sources are completely debunked as Christian propaganda.



So it is basically a probabilistic argument,

Oh, now logic is ok?


What is more likely

Exactly. What is more likely. Highly skilled writers take Jewish mythology and write a story that is as mythic as Lord of the Rings, definitely copy, line by line, stories from Psalms, Kings, Jesus Ben Anias and other fiction and create a demigod who follows the same basic model followed by other demigods only in that region and inspired by an older religion of the people who occupied their lands for 3 centuries. And it's actually all true or it's a myth just like the 1000 other religions going on at the time>

1There was a Jewish man named James and had a brother named Jesus

a) Paul meant spiritual brother in galatians and corintians despite the fact that the most obvious interpretation is that he was talking about biological brothers

You keep saying "obvious" and that isn't true. In Gal 1:18-19 it's known he's using the word to distinguish between apostolic and non.
Here Carrier is explaining that Ehrman also agrees regarding that passage. Some Pastor writing apologetics does not trump biblical historians.


"Ehrman also says this can’t be the meaning in Galatians 1:18-19 because there the James thus called a brother of the Lord is being differentiated from Cephas (Peter) the Apostle. As I wrote in my summary, that’s indeed true: Paul is making a distinction; he uses the full term for a Christian (“Brothers of the Lord”) every time he needs to distinguish apostolic from non-apostolic Christians. The James in Galatians 1 is not an Apostle. He is just a rank-and-file Christian. Merely a Brother of the Lord, not an Apostolic Brother of the Lord. The only Apostle he met at that time, he says, was Cephas (Peter), the first Apostle (according to 1 Corinthians 15:5 in light of 1 Corinthians 9:1). Likewise the “Brothers of the Lord” Paul references in 1 Corinthians 9:5 are, again, non-apostolic Christians—and thus being distinguished from Apostles, including, again, the first Apostle, Cephas."


b) Mark invented random names and he happened to invent “James” to describe Jesu´s older brother

As we have already seen, in Mark the apostle James is NOT a biological brother of Jesus. This James has a different biological brother. I gave that information. So yes, Mark gave Jesus a brother named James who also has a name that one of the apostles had.
 

joelr

Well-Known Member
C) the consensus of scolars is wrong and the passage of James is fake

The Wiki article is taking a 30 year old quote from one literary historian Luis Feldman - "states that the authenticity of the Josephus passage on James has been "almost universally acknowledged"."
Regarding only the James passage. Several scholars now believe the passage was speaking of a brother of Jesus Ben Damnnus.
Carrier also has a paper on that, the summary is:

Analysis of the evidence from the works of Origen, Eusebius, and Hegesippus concludes that the reference to “Christ” in Josephus, Jewish Antiquities 20.200 is probably an accidental interpolation or scribal emendation and that the passage was never originally about Christ or Christians. It referred not to James the brother of Jesus Christ, but probably to James the brother of the Jewish high priest Jesus ben Damneus.

Linked to here:
Josephus on Jesus? Why You Can't Cite Opinions Before 2014 • Richard Carrier


Do you realize that this passage in Josephus is explaining that a Jewish high priest had a brother who was killed and in the same article he was just speaking about Jesus ben Damneus, a Jewish high priest?
Christian apologetics got a hold of this and insisted it was about their Jesus. You often like to ask what is more likely.


Here is a blog review on Carrier's paper from another scholar:
Richard Carrier’s article: Origen, Eusebius, and the Accidental Interpolation in Josephus, Jewish Antiquities 20.200

and recent papers on the T.V. are very conclusive:

"recent publications by myself (Richard Carrier), Louis Feldman, G.J. Goldberg, Paul Hopper, Ken Olson, and Alice Whealey shed new light on what happened, altering what we should conclude about what Josephus originally wrote. No expert opinion on the authenticity of either passage is citeable, if it isn’t informed by their published research on it over the last ten years.

Besides those observations, six things in all have changed since opinions were last declared on this subject:

  • Reliance on the Arabic version of the Testimonium must be discarded.
  • Attempts to invent a pared-down version of what Josephus wrote are untenable.
  • The Testimonium derives from the New Testament.
  • The Testimonium doesn’t match Josephan narrative practice or context.
  • The Testimonium matches Eusebian more than Josephan style.
  • Previous opinions on the James passage were unaware of new findings, and therefore require revision.

Wiki:

It is commonly called the Testimonium Flavianum.[1][3][4] Almost all modern scholars reject the authenticity of this passage in its present form, while the majority of scholars nevertheless hold that it contains an authentic nucleus referencing the execution of Jesus by Pilate, which was then subject to Christian interpolation or alteration.[3][4][5][6][7][8][9][10] However, the exact nature and extent of the Christian redaction remains unclear.[11][12]

D) Church fathers also lied, despite the fact that they had theological motivs to remove the “brotherness” of James

They sure did lie. Did you forget all biblical scholarship only considers 7 of the Epistles authentic? Their motive was to promote a religion and create better evidence. Whatever they had to say was taken from the gospels which are myth.
Now this is important - it is KNOWN that the Josephus passage was messed with by later Christians. They call it an "interpolation". It's a lie. Christians high up in power, lied. They added words to another persons historical account. Do you understand this?
So when you ask if people "lied" as if it's not likely that is absurd.
We even know what words were added to the T.V.
Even if you believe in Christianity then 36 other gospel writers were lying. People lie.Even when writing religious myths. Do you imagine that the Gnostic writers or the Thomas author were some sort of devious pathological liers?


E) No competing sources dismisses the “lie” that James was not a biological brother

I can find many biblical historians explaining that there is a blackout of information regarding competing sources. All counter information was punishable by death. There were 36 other gospels and many Gnostic and in-between sects, other Epistles of Paul and anything that questions what became the canon in 3AD has been erased from history.
One Gnostic sect believed Jesus was only a spirit being. We only know of this because of finding the DSScrolls in a cave. We have exactly zero of the entire first canon, the Marcionite canon.
This is a frustrating line of argument and it always amazes to hear it used.


I agree that none of this points by itself is “very unlikely” but if we add them all together I´ll say that Carrier is just “trying to hard” with this degree of skepticisms you could deny the “brotherness” of any historical character.

A bunch of lousy points do not add up to anything.
Carrier is doing history as it's done. Without attachment to the outcome which is the opposite of apologetics. If something is questionable then you are allowed to question it. You are calling Carrier skeptical but you don't think that you are just bias? Would you care if a historian was questioning Krishna's brother on the same evidence?
He has said many times he expected to support historicity and was surprised to find the evidence does not support it.

You could deny a biological brother of a character if the references could reasonably mean "brother in the Lord".
And all the references after that were known to be repeating what they heard in a story that looks like fiction.

And Paul knows nothing about any earthly Jesus but mentions a brother? He only knows of apostles, some scripture and visions. So that makes sense.

Also if you read Carrier's book, he counts Paul's statement in favor of historicity since it's not clear. You don't seem to understand this. You are calling Carrier skeptic without an understanding of his work.
 
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oldbadger

Skanky Old Mongrel!
Excellent article on why we should be skeptical Jesus existed:

It would be easier, frankly, to believe that Tiberius Caesar, Jesus’ contemporary, was a figment of the imagination than to believe that there never was such a person as Jesus.
– N. T. Wright, Jesus and the Victory of God (Fortress, 1996)

The above article shows why we should not be skeptical that Jesus existed.

We do have coins dating from the early first century that bear images of Tiberius....it is not surprising that there are no coins surviving from the first century with the image of Jesus on them.

Did Jesus Exist? | American Atheists
Why would a Galilean peasant get to have his image struck on to an early 1st century coin?
The early first century Great Temple coin was struck with the image of a Greek God called Melgarth Heracles, or Baal to the Jews.
 

oldbadger

Skanky Old Mongrel!
I see, for once you were right. The conversation had moved onto the James quote that was largely accepted, though not for very good reasons. But you ignored the more recent and up to date research that shows that sources that it is now known that the James the Brother of Christ was also added after the fact:

Josephus on Jesus? Why You Can't Cite Opinions Before 2014 • Richard Carrier

I don't take much notice of the reference to James, but the main mention of Jesus in Antiquities can be shown to have written about Jesus. The placing of this helps a great deal. Definitely Christians have fiddled with this reference, but Christians did not insert it here.

An ardent Christian would have snucked a much larger passage in before of after the Baptist's, and not in amongst reports of trouble, difficulties and dodgy folks! :D

So I reckon that Josephus DID write about Jesus, in this little space amongst dodgy situations and incidents..... and that Christians erased much of it and rewrote their own version.

Antiquities
Now there was about this time Jesus, a wise man, if it be lawful to call him a man; for he was a doer of wonderful works, a teacher of such men as receive the truth with pleasure. He drew over to him both many of the Jews and many of the Gentiles. He was [the] Christ. And when Pilate, at the suggestion of the principal men amongst us, had condemned him to the cross, those that loved him at the first did not forsake him; for he appeared to them alive again the third day; as the divine prophets had foretold these and ten thousand other wonderful things concerning him. And the tribe of Christians, so named from him, are not extinct at this day.
 

leroy

Well-Known Member
I see, for once you were right. The conversation had moved onto the James quote that was largely accepted, though not for very good reasons. But you ignored the more recent and up to date research that shows that sources that it is now known that the James the Brother of Christ was also added after the fact:

Josephus on Jesus? Why You Can't Cite Opinions Before 2014 • Richard Carrier
I see, for once you were right. The conversation had moved onto the James quote that was largely accepted, though not for very good reasons. But you ignored the more recent and up to date research that shows that sources that it is now known that the James the Brother of Christ was also added after the fact:

Josephus on Jesus? Why You Can't Cite Opinions Before 2014 • Richard Carrier
So according to the source from Richard Carrier the Church Fathers (Eucebious) modified the text… The original text was talking about some other guy named Jesus, but he Church Fathers edited the text and annexed “Christ” in it. …

This is unlikely given the fact that Eucebious promoted the doctrine of “perpetual virginity” which means that he believed that Marry was always a virgin which would imply that she didn’t have other sons besides Jesus.

So the point is, if Eucebios willingly modified Josephus text, and had complete literary freedom, why did he add something that would contradict his own view? Why didn’t he said “James the half-brother of Jesus “?

Besides, even if the passage is fraudulent, this wouldn’t imply (nor even suggest) that James wasn’t the brother of Jesus, Eucebios had to get the information from some other source, so we still have an other source making the claim that James was the brother of jesus
 
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Subduction Zone

Veteran Member
So according to the source from Richard Carrier the Church Fathers (Eucebious) modified the text… The original text was talking about some other guy named Jesus, but he Church Fathers edited the text and annexed “Christ” in it. …

This is unlikely given the fact that Eucebious promoted the doctrine of “perpetual virginity” which means that he believed that Marry was always a virgin which would imply that she didn’t have other sons besides Jesus.

So the point is, if Eucebios willingly modified Josephus text, and had complete literary freedom, why did he add something that would contradict his own view? Why didn’t he said “James the half-brother of Jesus “?
That is what the evidence seems to suggest.

The reason one does this is that if one wants to bolster one's beliefs among others, I know there are many Christians that will believe false things even though they know better merely because they want to believe. That is another matter. If one wants to make the narrative of one's belief more reasonable then one will at least try to properly represent the views of another. As to Mary's perpetual virginity there is an obvious answer to it. Think about it a bit. Mark says that not only did Jesus have male brothers, those were name, but sisters as well. How could Mary have remained a virgin and yet Jesus still have brothers and sisters? I got the answer before I looked it up.
 

leroy

Well-Known Member
Historian says no, apologist say unclear.
Historian:

"Likewise the “Brothers of the Lord” Paul references in 1 Corinthians 9:5 are, again, non-apostolic Christians—and thus being distinguished from Apostles, including, again, the first Apostle, Cephas."

Christian apologist reference:

"It's unclear exactly who Paul means in his reference to "brothers of the Lord." Perhaps he means Jesus' actual half-brothers, born to Mary. Or this might mean "brothers" in the same sense as general Christian brotherhood. Or, it might be some other group entirely. In any case, Paul's main point is that he is not claiming his "right" to be supported by those he serves."

Which means that the Christian blogpost that you quotes is also wrong…. So what? The thing is that you didn’t deal with the argument.

1 Corinthians 9:5 clearly states that the all brothers of Jesus had wifes,

2 It would be unlikely that all the “spiritual brothers” of Jesus where married.

Which of these 2 points do you deny?
 

leroy

Well-Known Member
That is what the evidence seems to suggest.

The reason one does this is that if one wants to bolster one's beliefs among others, I know there are many Christians that will believe false things even though they know better merely because they want to believe. That is another matter. If one wants to make the narrative of one's belief more reasonable then one will at least try to properly represent the views of another. As to Mary's perpetual virginity there is an obvious answer to it. Think about it a bit. Mark says that not only did Jesus have male brothers, those were name, but sisters as well. How could Mary have remained a virgin and yet Jesus still have brothers and sisters? I got the answer before I looked it up.

How could Mary have remained a virgin and yet Jesus still have brothers and sisters? I got the answer before I looked it up.[

Well the church fathers (the ones that supposedly edited Josephus) did believed in the perpetual virginity of Marry, and they promoted this doctrine with passion and favor.

So my objection is: why would the church fathers edit the text such that the text contradicts their view?..The fact that Jesus had a brother named James strongly suggest that Marry was not a virgin all her life, .. if you are going to modify a text to fit your theological purposes, then it makes no sense to someone would add something that goes against his theology.


So
If the church fathers belived in the perpetual virginity (which implies that Jesus didnt have any brothers)

and if they modify josephus to fit their theological purposes...

Why woudl they modify the text such that the infdormation contradicts their purposes?
 
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