Tumah
Veteran Member
It's boilerplate because we have to keep repeating the explicit. Imagine you're running and people keep telling you, "there's a wall in front of you". Your response, "Such a typical remark". Would you rather people not told you about the wall you're about to run into?This is the standard, boiler plate Jewish response.
Israel is mentioned in the first half of Isaiah 52. It then switches to a man.
This continues for the entirety of chapter 53.
This man will die for the nation and the world. In His death he will see what
He has accomplished in redeeming us, and be glad.
This is not Israel. The Jews do not redeem anyone, the Jew is not the pure
and spotless lamb.
That is not at all what happens in Isaiah 52. Israel is referred to as both masculine and feminine, in the singular and plural throughout the chapter.
In verses 1-2 Israel is metaphorically referred to as Zion, in the feminine singular.
In verse 3, Israel is referred to in the masculine plural.
In verses 4-6 Israel is referred to in the masculine singular.
In verses 7-10 Israel again is referred to in the feminine singular and feminine plural.
In verses 11-12 Israel is referred to in the masculine plural (and possibly in the feminine plural)
In verses 13-15 Israel is referred to in the masculine singular.
I never noticed it before, but you actually see a pattern there of feminine -> masculine plural -> masculine singular repeated twice.
In any case, once you realize that, you'll also see that your interpretation of Isa. 53 is also off.