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The origin of 5 times prayer in Hadith books

mojtaba

Active Member
1.Ibn Hajar Al-Asqalani, one of the greatest Scholars and the exegete of Sahih Al-Bukhari has said that شطر in the Hadith of Mi'raj could also mean 'a portion of a thing', not half of the thing. See Fat-hul Bari Fi Sharhi Sahih Al-Bukhari by Al-Asqalani, V.1, P.551[ أو المراد بالشطر في حديث الباب البعض ].

2.Also, Murtada al-Zabidi, one of the greatest Arab philologists, has said in his famous book that in the Hadith of Mi'raj, شطر means 'some portions', not half [ (حَدِيثُ الإِسْرَاءِ: (فَوَضَعَ شَطْرَهَا)) ، أَي الصَّلاة (أَي بَعْضَها) ]. See, Taj Al-'Arus, V.12, P.169.

It should be said that the book Taj Al-'Arus is the second most frequently cited dictionary of Classical Arabic. See, https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Murtada_al-Zabidi

3.Also, in the authentic webite, almaany.com , it has also been mentioned that شطر also means a portion of every thing. See, http://www.almaany.com/ar/dict/ar-ar/شطر/

So, you can not say there is a mathematical mistake in that Hadith.
 
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mojtaba

Active Member
Strong people Vs. Weak people . Simple as it is .
They were uniqe people and not different ones and Allah changed his order for them, like his order in the Hadith of Mi'raj. Do you not know that Allah has power over all things?

[2:106]
For any verse that We abrogate or cause to be forgotten, We bring another which is better than it, or similar to it. Do you not know that Allah has power over all things?

This verse also can singly answer to your issue.
 
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mojtaba

Active Member
Replied on the other thread.
Not a good answer.

Allah siad to Prophet Muhammad to ask from the Messengers that died before him. You said that, Allah said to Prophet to ask from the angels that revealed to the past Prophets. But this reply could not be correct. Because,

1. Quran clearly says, 'Ask[ O Muhammad ] those of Our Messengers We sent before thee: Have We appointed, apart from the All-merciful, gods to be served?'[43:45].

This verse is clear and you want to chage it. I do not see any angel in the verse.

If you were right, the verse would be, ' Ask O Muhammad, those angels that we sent to Our Messengers that were before thee....'
The verse is clear, except you want to change and distort it.

2. There are a verse like this one in Holy Quran,

[5:116] And when God said, 'O Jesus son of Mary, didst thou say unto men, "Take me and my mother as gods, apart from God"?' He said, 'To Thee be glory! It is not mine to say what I have no right to...'

So, that verse[ i.e., 43:45 ] means that Allah said to Prophet Muhammad to directly ask from those Prophets that passed away before him such and such things, not from the angels.
 
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Union

Well-Known Member
God wanted to reduce the Salats throught the Shifa'ah of one of His Prophets, that is Prophet Moses. What is wrong with you?
God knew that He finally would reduce the Salats to the 5. But, He wanted to do so through the Shifa'ah of Prophet Moses(anwawas).

The Hadith does not mean God or Prophet Muhammad were ignorant about an issue that Moses was awar of. That is Shifa'ah.

That is just like the Prophecy of Prophet Aaron. If we think like you, we should believe that Prophet Moses knew more that God.[ نعوذ بالله ]

Chapter 28:
He[ Moses ] said, ‘My Lord! Indeed, I have killed one of their men, so I fear they will kill me. (33) Moreover my brother Aaron is more eloquent than me in speech. So send him with me as a helper to confirm me, for I fear that they will impugn me.’ (34) He said, ‘We will strengthen your arm by means of your brother, and invest both of you with such authority that they will not touch you. (35)

Chapter 20:
[ O my Lord ] Appoint for me a minister from my family, (29) Aaron, my brother. (30)Strengthen my back through him, (31) and make him my associate in my task, (32) so that we may glorify You greatly, (33) and remember You greatly. (34) Indeed You see us best.’ (35) He said, ‘Moses, your request has been granted! (36)

Those two cases are different than one another .

The case of Hadith : Prophet Moses Vs. Al-Knowing ALLAH+Prophet Muhammad .
Prophet Moses knew exactly what Al-Knowing ALLAH was giving to Prophet Muhammad was a burden for his followers , sitting in heaven suggesting for a nation came thousand years after him . That is ridiculous .

The case of Qur'an : No versus . Prophet Moses requested Al-Knowing GOD to give him a helper in his personal case . It was first hand appeal .No where in Qur'an it suggested that without Aaron he would fail . In fact ALLAH swt proclaimed HIS full support to Moses against Pharaoh even if he is alone . Its Prophet Moses' own discretion .

Hence you are comparing an apple with an orange .:redapple: Vs.:tangerine: ;)
 

Union

Well-Known Member
They were uniqe people and not different ones and Allah changed his order for them, like his order in the Hadith of Mi'raj. Do you not know that Allah has power over all things? [/quote ]

Suggesting the same : Strong People Vs. Weak People . No loophole in this understanding . It is perfectly in harmony that the nature of Qur'an possess :

6:115 And the word of your Lord has been completed with truth and justice; there is no changing His words. He is the Hearer, the Knower.
 

Union

Well-Known Member
[2:106]

For any verse that We abrogate or cause to be forgotten, We bring another which is better than it, or similar to it. Do you not know that Allah has power over all things?


This verse also can singly answer to your issue.


Give a close look into the context of the verse :


[002:106] None of Our revelations do We abrogate or cause to be forgotten, but We substitute something better or similar: Knowest thou not that God Hath power over all things?


It is not the proof that ALLAH had abrogated some verses of Quran . This verses has been interpreted wrongly just to validate the theory of abrogation in Qur'an. The Arabic word ayah which can be translated as communications, revelations, miracles , signs , scriptures etc. need to be understood first through the context of the passage . To understand this fact you need to read this verse together with the previous and next verses of it :


[002:105] It is never the wish of those without Faith among the People of the Book, nor of the Pagans, that anything good should come down to you from your Lord. But God will choose for His special Mercy whom He will - for God is Lord of grace abounding.



[002:106] None of Our revelations do We abrogate or cause to be forgotten, but We substitute something better or similar: Knowest thou not that God Hath power over all things?


[002:107] Knowest thou not that to God belongeth the dominion of the heavens and the earth? And besides Him ye have neither patron nor helper.


[002:108] Would ye question your Apostle as Moses was questioned of old? but whoever changeth from Faith to Unbelief, Hath strayed without doubt from the even way.


[002:109] Quite a number of the People of the Book wish they could Turn you (people) back to infidelity after ye have believed, from selfish envy, after the Truth hath become Manifest unto them: But forgive and overlook, Till God accomplish His purpose; for God

Hath power over all things.


After reading all together it becomes clear to us that GOD is addressing verse 2:106 mainly to the people of scriptures i.e., for Jews and Christians. If GOD had abrogated the verses of Quran then what is the point to address it to the Jews and Christians? Abrogation in Quran didn't keep any significance to them . Therefore this ayah must be referred to the Quran it self which abrogated the others ayah Torah and Injil (The bible) . Hence the Arabic word ayah in this verse referred to the scriptures e.g., Torah, Injil and Qur’an .


Verse 105 is telling that Jews and Christian didn’t like to see Muhammad (p) showered with blessing, i.e., the Quran because it abrogated the old and new testament.


Verse 108-109 are telling us again that Jews and Christian didn't like the Quran (truth in verse ) to be the final testament which abrogated the old and new testament .


Even today the abrogation in Quran is a matter of enjoyment for the Jews and Christian , but if they are told that Quran is the last scripture to follow which cancelled the previous scriptures , they become angry .


Moreover if we observe verse 2:106 carefully we can notice:


> GOD made ayah to be forgotten . In other word it means ayah had lost in the course of time or it was not preserved . This criterion doesn't fit for the verses of Quran . If any verse in the Quran had abrogated it would still remain in the Quran and memorized by millions of Muslims and not forgotten . Moreover there are numerous records in history that whenever any verse revealed to Muhammad (p) he used to call his scribes (about 48 scribes he had to write there and there) to write the verse down and hundreds of his companions memorized it instantly and recited it in front of the prophet to rectify it if there would be any mistakes. Hence it is quite illogical to think that the verses of Quran were forgotten from so many numbers of prophet’s companions or were blotted from the writing that observed by the scribes with sincerity .


>> In the verses 2:106 it is also told that when ALLAH abrogated ayah , then HE replaced it with a better one or at least an equal one . If ALLAH is talking about Quran here then a verse can be abrogated by a better verses but does it make any sense if a verse is abrogated with the same qualitative verse in the same book Quran ? Then what is the utility of the abrogation? It is logical only when any verses or any law from the previous scriptures have been replaced by a better or equal verses or law in the Quran .
 

Union

Well-Known Member
1.Ibn Hajar Al-Asqalani, one of the greatest Scholars and the exegete of Sahih Al-Bukhari has said that شطر in the Hadith of Mi'raj could also mean 'a portion of a thing', not half of the thing. See Fat-hul Bari Fi Sharhi Sahih Al-Bukhari by Al-Asqalani, V.1, P.551[ أو المراد بالشطر في حديث الباب البعض ].

2.Also, Murtada al-Zabidi, one of the greatest Arab philologists, has said in his famous book that in the Hadith of Mi'raj, شطر means 'some portions', not half [ (حَدِيثُ الإِسْرَاءِ: (فَوَضَعَ شَطْرَهَا)) ، أَي الصَّلاة (أَي بَعْضَها) ]. See, Taj Al-'Arus, V.12, P.169.

It should be said that the book Taj Al-'Arus is the second most frequently cited dictionary of Classical Arabic. See, https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Murtada_al-Zabidi

3.Also, in the authentic webite, almaany.com , it has also been mentioned that شطر also means a portion of every thing. See, http://www.almaany.com/ar/dict/ar-ar/شطر/

So, you can not say there is a mathematical mistake in that Hadith.

Well all dictionaries including your suggested ones also confirm that the primary meaning of شطر is half . What you insist is the secondary translation of it .

Nevertheless let us lead by example . I showed three examples from the Hadith literature that when شطر is used associating with a number it was used in an arithmetic denotion which is half (1/2) . Now show me from Hadith literature the same for a number must not used as 1/2 . That will give you a 50% chance of being right in interpreting the Hadith of Miraj in OP .

Fair deal , I guess .
 

mojtaba

Active Member
Give a close look into the context of the verse :


[002:106] None of Our revelations do We abrogate or cause to be forgotten, but We substitute something better or similar: Knowest thou not that God Hath power over all things?


It is not the proof that ALLAH had abrogated some verses of Quran . This verses has been interpreted wrongly just to validate the theory of abrogation in Qur'an. The Arabic word ayah which can be translated as communications, revelations, miracles , signs , scriptures etc. need to be understood first through the context of the passage . To understand this fact you need to read this verse together with the previous and next verses of it :


[002:105] It is never the wish of those without Faith among the People of the Book, nor of the Pagans, that anything good should come down to you from your Lord. But God will choose for His special Mercy whom He will - for God is Lord of grace abounding.



[002:106] None of Our revelations do We abrogate or cause to be forgotten, but We substitute something better or similar: Knowest thou not that God Hath power over all things?


[002:107] Knowest thou not that to God belongeth the dominion of the heavens and the earth? And besides Him ye have neither patron nor helper.


[002:108] Would ye question your Apostle as Moses was questioned of old? but whoever changeth from Faith to Unbelief, Hath strayed without doubt from the even way.


[002:109] Quite a number of the People of the Book wish they could Turn you (people) back to infidelity after ye have believed, from selfish envy, after the Truth hath become Manifest unto them: But forgive and overlook, Till God accomplish His purpose; for God

Hath power over all things.


After reading all together it becomes clear to us that GOD is addressing verse 2:106 mainly to the people of scriptures i.e., for Jews and Christians. If GOD had abrogated the verses of Quran then what is the point to address it to the Jews and Christians? Abrogation in Quran didn't keep any significance to them . Therefore this ayah must be referred to the Quran it self which abrogated the others ayah Torah and Injil (The bible) . Hence the Arabic word ayah in this verse referred to the scriptures e.g., Torah, Injil and Qur’an .


Verse 105 is telling that Jews and Christian didn’t like to see Muhammad (p) showered with blessing, i.e., the Quran because it abrogated the old and new testament.


Verse 108-109 are telling us again that Jews and Christian didn't like the Quran (truth in verse ) to be the final testament which abrogated the old and new testament .


Even today the abrogation in Quran is a matter of enjoyment for the Jews and Christian , but if they are told that Quran is the last scripture to follow which cancelled the previous scriptures , they become angry .


Moreover if we observe verse 2:106 carefully we can notice:


> GOD made ayah to be forgotten . In other word it means ayah had lost in the course of time or it was not preserved . This criterion doesn't fit for the verses of Quran . If any verse in the Quran had abrogated it would still remain in the Quran and memorized by millions of Muslims and not forgotten . Moreover there are numerous records in history that whenever any verse revealed to Muhammad (p) he used to call his scribes (about 48 scribes he had to write there and there) to write the verse down and hundreds of his companions memorized it instantly and recited it in front of the prophet to rectify it if there would be any mistakes. Hence it is quite illogical to think that the verses of Quran were forgotten from so many numbers of prophet’s companions or were blotted from the writing that observed by the scribes with sincerity .


>> In the verses 2:106 it is also told that when ALLAH abrogated ayah , then HE replaced it with a better one or at least an equal one . If ALLAH is talking about Quran here then a verse can be abrogated by a better verses but does it make any sense if a verse is abrogated with the same qualitative verse in the same book Quran ? Then what is the utility of the abrogation? It is logical only when any verses or any law from the previous scriptures have been replaced by a better or equal verses or law in the Quran .
Allah changed the Qiblah.

Chapter 2
The fools among the people will say: What has turned them from their qiblah which they had? Say: The East and the West belong only to Allah; He guides whom He likes to the right path. (142)

So, the orders of Allah could be changed by Himself, based on some wisdoms.
 

mojtaba

Active Member
I think what I have said is sufficient.

Continue to the distortion of Quran and Hadiths.
 
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Union

Well-Known Member
Allah changed the Qiblah.

Chapter 2
The fools among the people will say: What has turned them from their qiblah which they had? Say: The East and the West belong only to Allah; He guides whom He likes to the right path. (142)

So, the orders of Allah could be changed by Himself, based on some wisdoms.

Almighty ALLAH ordered to change the Qiblah to the new one . Where is the command to follow the first one ?
 

mojtaba

Active Member
Almighty ALLAH ordered to change the Qiblah to the new one . Where is the command to follow the first one ?
I did not say Allah change the verses. I said Allah can change His orders, like the changing of Qibla. Just like this, He also changed the number of Salats that He deterimined and there is not any problem in this matter.

I believe that it is enough and others who read the posts can see them and then judge.

May Allah forgive whomever changes the meaning of the verses of His Book and the sayings of His Prophet.
 

Union

Well-Known Member
I did not say Allah change the verses. I said Allah can change His orders, like the changing of Qibla. Just like this, He also changed the number of Salats that He deterimined and there is not any problem in this matter.

Alas ! You will never understand the nature of commands of GOD only because your Hadith said the opposite

6:115 And the word of your Lord has been completed with truth and justice; there is no changing His words. He is the Hearer, the Knower.

I believe that it is enough and others who read the posts can see them and then judge.

May Allah forgive whomever changes the meaning of the verses of His Book and the sayings of His Prophet.

Ameen , thumma Ameen .
 

mojtaba

Active Member
Alas ! You will never understand the nature of commands of GOD only because your Hadith said the opposite

6:115 And the word of your Lord has been completed with truth and justice; there is no changing His words. He is the Hearer, the Knower..

The orders of Allah that were changed by Him:

1.Allah changed the Qibla,

Chapter 2
The fools among the people will say: What has turned them from their qiblah which they had? Say: The East and the West belong only to Allah; He guides whom He likes to the right path. (142)

2.Allah changed the number of the nights which He appointed with Moses(as),

7:142
And We appointed with Musa a time of thirty nights and then completed them with ten (more), so the appointed time of his Lord was complete forty nights...

So, the orders of Allah could be changed by Himself and Allah’s hands is not tied up.

-----------
Allah said,
17:82
We send down in the Quran that which is a cure and mercy for the faithful; and it[ Quran ] increases the wrongdoers only in loss.
 
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mojtaba

Active Member
Those two cases are different than one another .

The case of Hadith : Prophet Moses Vs. Al-Knowing ALLAH+Prophet Muhammad .
Prophet Moses knew exactly what Al-Knowing ALLAH was giving to Prophet Muhammad was a burden for his followers , sitting in heaven suggesting for a nation came thousand years after him . That is ridiculous .

The case of Qur'an : No versus . Prophet Moses requested Al-Knowing GOD to give him a helper in his personal case . It was first hand appeal .No where in Qur'an it suggested that without Aaron he would fail . In fact ALLAH swt proclaimed HIS full support to Moses against Pharaoh even if he is alone . Its Prophet Moses' own discretion .

Hence you are comparing an apple with an orange .:redapple: Vs.:tangerine: ;)
You said, 'The case of Qur'an : No versus .Prophet Moses requested Al-Knowing GOD to give him a helper in his personal case . It was first hand appeal .No where in Qur'an it suggested that without Aaron he would fail. In fact ALLAH swt proclaimed HIS full support to Moses against Pharaoh even if he is alone . Its Prophet Moses' own discretion .'

Just like this, the Hadith does not say that Muslims could not certainly do the 50 Salats. It was Prophet Moses' own discretion to offer to Prophet Muhammad that matter, based on his experiance about his people( One part of the Hadith of Mi'raj: Moses(as) said to Muhammad(s), 'I had the hardest experience to bring Bani Israel to obedience. Your followers cannot put up with such obligation. So, return to your Lord and request Him (to reduce the number of prayers.' ) ).
 
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Union

Well-Known Member
The orders of Allah that were changed by Him:

1.Allah changed the Qibla,

Chapter 2
The fools among the people will say: What has turned them from their qiblah which they had? Say: The East and the West belong only to Allah; He guides whom He likes to the right path. (142)

What's wrong with you ? You just want argue for the sake of arguments and not to bring the fact . This is the third time I am asking you the same question - where is the verse that Almighty GOD commanded to follow the first Qiblah ? If you can bring it then only it can entail you argument that GOD has changed HIS own first command by changing the Qiblah to AMAH .


Allah changed the number of the nights which He appointed with Moses(as),

7:142
And We appointed with Musa a time of thirty nights and then completed them with ten (more), so the appointed time of his Lord was complete forty nights...

So, the orders of Allah could be changed by Himself and Allah’s hands is not tied up.

-----------
Allah said,
17:82
We send down in the Quran that which is a cure and mercy for the faithful; and it[ Quran ] increases the wrongdoers only in loss.

This is one and same order . It was not like that Prophet Moses went up and spent thirty nights and came down and then GOD though "oops! I made a mistake, go back and spend another ten . "

GOD changes his minds in Hadith and Bible but not in Qur'an .
 

Union

Well-Known Member
You said, 'The case of Qur'an : No versus .Prophet Moses requested Al-Knowing GOD to give him a helper in his personal case . It was first hand appeal .No where in Qur'an it suggested that without Aaron he would fail. In fact ALLAH swt proclaimed HIS full support to Moses against Pharaoh even if he is alone . Its Prophet Moses' own discretion .'

Just like this, the Hadith does not say that Muslims could not certainly do the 50 Salats. It was Prophet Moses' own discretion to offer to Prophet Muhammad that matter, based on his experiance about his people( One part of the Hadith of Mi'raj: Moses(as) said to Muhammad(s), 'I had the hardest experience to bring Bani Israel to obedience. Your followers cannot put up with such obligation. So, return to your Lord and request Him (to reduce the number of prayers.' ) ).

My key points were very clear :

01- Prophet Moses was sitting in heaven .
02- He was a Prophet 1000 years apart or more than Prophet Muhammad .
03- An issue that decided by Almighty GOD and Prophet Muhammad interfered by Prophet Muhammad .
04- The Ummah belonged to Prophet Muhammad not of Prophet Moses .
05- ALLAH , the Almighty assured Muslim are the best Ummah not like Bani Israel .
06- Prophet Mose pressed Prophet Muhammad in such a way that Prophet Muhammad felt ashamed " I replied, 'Now I feel shy of asking my Lord again.'"

You can't see what is apparent because you have sold your brain to your Ayatollahs . I can't help you in this anymore .
 
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mojtaba

Active Member
What's wrong with you ? You just want argue for the sake of arguments and not to bring the fact . This is the third time I am asking you the same question - where is the verse that Almighty GOD commanded to follow the first Qiblah ? If you can bring it then only it can entail you argument that GOD has changed HIS own first command by changing the Qiblah to AMAH .
Quran says,

The fools among the people will say: What has turned them from their qiblah which they had? Say: The East and the West belong only to Allah; He guides whom He likes to the right path. (142)

This verse clearly says that there was firstly a Qibla for Muslims( ... their qiblah which they had ). Then Allah changed it to Mecca( What has turned them from ... ). Do not say Muslims took that first Qibla without the order of Allah.

Because you think that the orders of Allah are only in Quran, you err and ask me to find the verse which shows the first Qibla.

This is one and same order . It was not like that Prophet Moses went up and spent thirty nights and came down and then GOD though "oops! I made a mistake, go back and spend another ten . "
GOD changes his minds in Hadith and Bible but not in Qur'an .
Quran says that Allah appointed 30 nights firstly. Then, He - because of some matters - changed it to 40 nights.

There is not any mistake by Almighty Allah; Not in that verse, not in the Hadith. In the verse, Allah firstly appointed 30 nights with Moses(as). Then, He changed the number of the nights to 40, because of some matters[ And We appointed with Musa a time of thirty nights and then completed them with ten (more) ]. Like this, in the Hadith, Allah firstly determined 50 Salats, then, because of the prayer(Doa) of Prophet Muhammad, He changed the number of Salats to 5. I do not see any mistake by Almighty Allah in the Hadith.

Allah says,
And your Lord proclaimed, "Pray to Me, I will accept"[40:60]
 

mojtaba

Active Member
My key points were very clear :

01- Prophet Moses was sitting in heaven .
1.Heaven in the Hadith of Mi'raj does not mean space. Heaven in that Hadith is what above this matterial world. Indeed, Heaven in it means Barzakh world, the world which according to Quran is between this matterial world and the world of Resurrection and those who die, will go to it until the day of Resurrection.

Allah says,
When death comes to one of them, he says, ‘My Lord! Take me back, (99) that I may act righteously in what I have left behind.’ ‘By no means! These are mere words that he says.’ And before them is a barrier( Barzakh ) until the day they will be resurrected.

2.There is a verse which names the matterial world as earth.

7:176 Had We wished, We would have surely raised him up[ towards Ourselves ] by their means, but he clung to the earth[ matterial world ] and followed his [base] desires.

02- He was a Prophet 1000 years apart or more than Prophet Muhammad .
Prophet Moses was in Barzakh world. So, this point is meaningless.

03- An issue that decided by Almighty GOD and Prophet Muhammad interfered by Prophet Muhammad .
Prophet Muhammad pleaded with Allah and asked Him to do such things.

Allah says,
And your Lord proclaimed, "Pray to Me, I will accept"[40:60]

What is wrong with you?

04- The Ummah belonged to Prophet Muhammad not of Prophet Moses .
Does not make any sense. Could not Prophet Moses talk with Prophet Muhammad about his( Muhammad ) people?!!! So sad.

05- ALLAH , the Almighty assured Muslim are the best Ummah not like Bani Israel .
1. Allah says about the people of Moses,
Children of Israel, remember My blessing wherewith I blessed you, and that I have preferred you above all beings[2:47]

2. Why did Allah assured Muslims are the best Ummah? Because of their faith and good doings( You are the best nation [ever] brought forth for mankind: you bid what is right and forbid what is wrong, and have faith in Allah. ).

But, this Allah has also said about Muslims that there is weakness in them( Now God has lightened it for you[ O Muslims ], knowing that there is weakness in you.[8:66] ).

According to the Hadith of Mi'raj, Prophet Moses said to Prophet Muhamma, 'Based on my experience about my own people, your people shoud be weak, so plead with Allah to lighten it[ 50 Salats ] for them.'

06- Prophet Mose pressed Prophet Muhammad in such a way that Prophet Muhammad felt ashamed " I replied, 'Now I feel shy of asking my Lord again.'"
Prophet Moses did not forced Prophet Muhammad to do so; why did you say that Prophet Mose pressed Prophet Muhammad in such a way that Prophet Muhammad felt ashamed.

That was an ordinary conversation between two Prophets. I do not see any problem in it. Prophet Moses suggested to Prophet Muhammad an other time to he pleads with Allah, so that He(swt) would again lighten the number of Salats for Muslims. But, Prophet Muhammad said to Moses that he feels shy of asking his Lord again.

You can't see what is apparent because you have sold your brain to your Ayatollahs . I can't help you in this anymore.
I am sorry for your fanaticism. Why do you insult my great scholars who study about Islam throught their lifes?

Also, I do not need your help.
 
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Union

Well-Known Member
Quran says,

The fools among the people will say: What has turned them from their qiblah which they had? Say: The East and the West belong only to Allah; He guides whom He likes to the right path. (142)

This verse clearly says that there was firstly a Qibla for Muslims( ... their qiblah which they had ). Then Allah changed it to Mecca( What has turned them from ... ). Do not say Muslims took that first Qibla without the order of Allah.

Because you think that the orders of Allah are only in Quran, you err and ask me to find the verse which shows the first Qibla.

GOD is free from the first Qiblah they followed and GOD is subjected for the new Qiblah they followed . In other word Muslim that time chose to follow the first Qiblah without any revelation of GOD .


Quran says that Allah appointed 30 nights firstly. Then, He - because of some matters - changed it to 40 nights.

There is not any mistake by Almighty Allah; Not in that verse, not in the Hadith. In the verse, Allah firstly appointed 30 nights with Moses(as). Then, He changed the number of the nights to 40, because of some matters[ And We appointed with Musa a time of thirty nights and then completed them with ten (more) ]. Like this, in the Hadith, Allah firstly determined 50 Salats, then, because of the prayer(Doa) of Prophet Muhammad, He changed the number of Salats to 5. I do not see any mistake by Almighty Allah in the Hadith.

Allah says,
And your Lord proclaimed, "Pray to Me, I will accept"[40:60]

There are so many loop holes in that Hadith e.g., numerical , logical , contextual and scientifically . Manifold problems in one single Hadith . It has different 5 versions on the same incident - which all prove its fallacy . Read my post#3 which stipulated other versions of the Hadith with a big difference .
 
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