While talking with my priest and discussing issues of my doubts about the Messiah being a diety and how Catholics and other Christians often do not use the original Hebrew, I got the below response and I am hoping some learned Jewish friends might help answer this rebuttal (what is in bold, I put there for emphassis):
I, of course, I do not know what may be the "original Hebrew text" to which you refer, but keep in mind that the Jewish Bible today is based on the Massoric texts, which post date the Hebrew texts to which Saint Jerome had access when he translated them into Latin. The Massoric texts are for the most part no earlier than the sixth or seventh century after Christ.
The Fathers of the Church do testify that when Christians began arguing these prophecies with the Jews, certain Jewish texts were altered.
Actually some of the Hebrew Bible has to be translated from other languages, because the text no longer exists in the origianl language.
In any case, for Christians, the Greek Septuagint, used by the Evangelist Matthew, Saint Paul, and even Our Blessed Lord Himself has the same authority, and the translation made before Christ, fully testifies to the prophecies.
I hope some of you might help clarify this for me.
Thank you all in advance.
I, of course, I do not know what may be the "original Hebrew text" to which you refer, but keep in mind that the Jewish Bible today is based on the Massoric texts, which post date the Hebrew texts to which Saint Jerome had access when he translated them into Latin. The Massoric texts are for the most part no earlier than the sixth or seventh century after Christ.
The Fathers of the Church do testify that when Christians began arguing these prophecies with the Jews, certain Jewish texts were altered.
Actually some of the Hebrew Bible has to be translated from other languages, because the text no longer exists in the origianl language.
In any case, for Christians, the Greek Septuagint, used by the Evangelist Matthew, Saint Paul, and even Our Blessed Lord Himself has the same authority, and the translation made before Christ, fully testifies to the prophecies.
I hope some of you might help clarify this for me.
Thank you all in advance.